Odtü İngilizce Hazırlık atlama Sınavı , Odtü İngilizce Hazırlık 

Odtü  ’de öğrenci olmak tercihiniz olacaksa ve İngilizce altyapınızın yeterli olduğuna inanıyorsanız Odtü İngilizce Hazırlık Programından muaf olabilirsiniz. Bunu gerçekleştirmek için Yabancı Diller Yüksek Okulu tarafından hazırlanan Odtü  İngilizce Yeterlik Sınavı (İYS) girerek 100 puan üzerinden en az 59,50 puan almanız gerekmektedir. Odtü  İngilizce Yeterlik Sınavı  için yapacağınız çalışma  İngilizce alt yapısı olan öğrencilerin bilgisini tazeleme ve pekiştirme ilkesinden yola çıkarak sizleri dilbilgisi ve kelime bilgisi yanısıra, okuduğunu anlama, dinleme ve yazma becerilerilerini ölçen ve iki aşamalı olarak verilen Odtü  İngilizce Yeterlik Sınavı hazırlamak amacıyla geliştirilmiştir. (Sınavın bölümleri ve puan dağılımı hakkındaki özet bilgi ile dinleme bölümü de dahil olmak üzere tam bir sınav örneği METU-EPE kitapçığında bulunmaktadır. Bu kitapçık Odtü  Kitaplığından 5 TL karşılığında temin edilebilir.)

Odtü İngilizce  Hazırlık Atlama  Sınavı soruları aşağıdaki gibidir,

PART I LANGUAGE (1/2 pt. each; 35 pts.) Questions 1- 70 On your answer sheet, mark the alternative which best completes each sentence/paragraph.1. There is ________ entertainment in the country that I would probably be bored. a) so little  b) very little c) such little d) little 2. ________ the approaching storm, the wind began to blow hard and the sky became quite dark. a) Because b) Resulting in c) Now that d) Because of 3. ________ the rhinoceros is carefully protected, it will soon become extinct like some other species. a) If  b) As long as c) Unless  d) Whenever 4. In biology, a cell is defined as the smallest unit of life __________ all the components required for independent existence. a) contains  b) is contained c) it contains d) containing 5. I wish you ________ me that you didn’t like fruit cake. I would have made something else. a) told  b) had told c) would telld) would have told 6. James is considering ________ his job as he isn’t satisfied with the working conditions. a) about changing  b) to change c) changing d) change 7. ________ we go to the cinema, a visit to the theatre is still something special. a) Not only when  b) Once c) As soon as d) No matter how often 8. We can judge the success of your scheme ________ into account the financial benefits over the past few years. a) when to take  b) by taking c) after being taken d) of taking 9. I’d rather you ________ Michael’s car. I may need mine to pick up my son from school. a) borrow  b) will borrow  c) borrowed d) would borrow 10. Did you remember ________ Tim that we can’t come on Saturday? a) telling   b) to tellc) borrowed  d) you told 11. The brakes need ________. a) adjusted b) to be adjusting c) to adjust d) adjusting 12. The dentist asked the little boy if he _________ his teeth regularly. a) brushes  b) brushed c) had brushed d) will brush 13. The larger the earth’s human population grows, ________. a) it becomes more difficult to satisfy basic human needs b) satisfying basic human needs becomes more difficult c) the more difficult it becomes to satisfy basic human needs d) the satisfaction of basic human needs becomes more difficult 14. Although the fire was very small, everyone panicked and rushed out of the cinema, ________ complete chaos. a) that caused b) they caused c) caused d) causing 15. She ________ French for two years when she started to do her M.A. in Paris. a) has been studying  b) had been studying c) studied d) was studying 16. It is necessary that she ________ her career no matter what difficulties lie ahead of her. a) pursue  b) must pursue c) pursued d) will pursue 17. If I’d accepted the job, I ________ earning a good salary now. a) would be  b) were c) would have been d) had been 18. Not having any time to spare, we couldn’t visit all the places we ________ to. a) would like b) would have liked c) will like d) could have liked 19. The local restaurant serves ________ food that people go there from miles away. a) such a good  b) very good c) such good d) so good 20. Scott Joplin is clearly the world’s __________ composer of ragtime music. a) very famous  b) famous c) more famous d) most famous 21. A discussion of group personality would ________ be complete without a consideration of national character. a) hardly  b) almost  c) nearly d) rarely 22. ________ of the accident, the police rushed to the scene immediately. a) Informing  b) Having been informedc) Having informed d) Been informed 23. I am not sure whether ________ present will make her as happy as ________. a) your/my b) them/mine c) their/our d) my/yours 24. In order to proceed, we must agree ________ a plan of action. a) with  b) on c) at d) in 25. By the time he ________ home, his children will have gone to bed. a) had gotten  b) will get  c) gets d) got 26. I prefer writing a term paper ________ taking an examination. a) than  b) to c) instead d) from 27. It was in 1492 ________ Christopher Columbus arrived in the New World. a) which  b) that c) when d) in which 28. Ride sharing ________ more popular ever since the government ________ making frequent increases in gasoline prices. a) became …. has started  b) became …. startedc) has become …. started   d) has become …. has started 29. The businessman had his store ________ up so that he could collect the insurance. a) blow  b) blowing c) to blow d) blown 30. Only after they themselves become parents, _______ the difficulties of raising children. a) people realise  b) do people realisec) did people realise  d) people realised 31. ________ Americans, who seem to prefer coffee, the English drink a lot of tea. a) Unlike  b) Whereas c) While d) Despite 32. His score on the exam was __________ to qualify him for a graduate program. a) so good  b) too good c) very good d) good enough 33. Let’s invite them to dinner some time, _______ ? a) will we  b) shall we  c) don’t we d) won’t we 34. ________ physical gestures and body language have different meanings in different cultures is a commonly-accepted phenomenon. a) That  b) Whetherc) There are  d) The 35. __________ may sometimes appear that children are crying when they are actually laughing. a) They b) It c) He  d) There 36. Almost everyone in the class got a high grade on the exam. They all ________ hard. a) might have studied b) should have studied c) must have studied d) had to study It was almost dark when we arrived ___37__ the hotel ___38__ we were planning to spend the night. 37. a) to  b) at c) __ d) in      38. a) which  b) what c) that d) where   Virtually ___39__ improvement in plumbing systems was made __40__ the time of the Romans until the 19th century. 39. a) not  b) no  c) none   d) not only   40. a) from b) since c) during d) by   The baby ___41___ from drowning by a quick-thinking teenager is making good progress and ___42___ to go home soon. 41. a) having saved  b) being saved c) saved d) was saved 42. a) is allowing  b) will be allowed c) allows d) is being allowed Studies show that students with high self-esteem get ___43___ ratings from both themselves and their teachers than ___44___ with low self-esteem. 43. a) high b) higher c) very high  d) the highest  44. a) those b) that c) ones d) others

A group of scientists working in eastern Kazakhstan ___45___ an extraordinary discovery in the frozenwastes: a tiny tooth less than 2 mm across. It belongs to a pouched mammal, or marsupial, which makes it the first remains of a marsupial ever ___46___ in Asia.

45. a) reporting b) has reported c) is reporting  d) to report 46. a) to be found b) been found c) having found d) being found It’s a pity you ___47___ come to the picnic on Sunday. The weather was ___48___ cold but we___49___ warm by eating Sarah’s wonderful homemade soup. The picnic basket was quite heavy on theway there, but it was ___50___ lighter when we carried it home. We played volleyball on the beach until it started raining and ___51___ we came home – tired and wet, but feeling great. 47. a) hadn’t b) shouldn’t  c) wouldn’t d) couldn’t 48. a) rather b) much c) enough d) too 49. a) had to keep  b) would keep c) have kept d) were able to keep 50. a) a lot b) lots c) a lot of  d) lots of 51. a) when b) after c) then d) before

 A speaker delivering a persuasive speech can make use of the testimonial technique. The speaker chooses a person ___52___ by the audience. Sometimes the person is local, ___53___ more often he/she is a national figure. Names __54___ Abraham Lincoln, Susan B. Anthony, Dwight Eisenhower, and Martin Luther King inspire good feelings in the audience. The speaker then implies that if one of these heroic people ___55___ there, that person would do something this way or that way. There is ___56___ any evidence that these people ever spoke about the particular issue, but the speaker claims he or she knows ___57___ these famous people would feel.

52. a) admiring b) admired c) admiringly d) admirable 53. a) because b) indeed c) but d) also 54. a) for example b) similar to c) as d) like 55. a) would have been  b) were c) had been d) would be 56. a) seldom b) sometimes c) yet d) still 57. a) however b) that c) how d) why

It is widely believed that medical science has been gradually and systematically reducing civilisation’s diseases. In the past, ___58___ ignorance and superstition that resulted in epidemics like the medieval plagues. However, during the 19th and 20th centuries, scientists finally managed to discover ___59___ infectious diseases and began to cure them with drugs and immunisation. Above all, improved technology and advances in anaesthesia enabled surgeons to carry out sophisticated operations; penicillin and antibiotics helped complete the advance. And yet, some people disagree. ___60___ point out that more credit ought to be given to social reformers ___61___ for purer water and better sewage disposal so that__62___. It is their opinion that the drugs and antibiotics merely speeded up the process. ___63___ this contribution was valuable, it did not lower the level of disease in general.

58. a) that the combination of b) it was the combination of  c) the combination of  d) there was the combination of 59. a) that caused b) causing c) whichever caused d) what caused 60. a) Those  b) They  c) Some d) Others 61. a) whose campaigns b) campaigned c) who campaigned d) being campaigned 62. a) to improve living standards b) it improves living standards c) living standards should be improved  c) living standards should be improved 63. a) In spite of  b) Nonetheless  c) While d) Even so The origins of baseball probably stretch back to 1839, ___64___ Abner Doubleday, a civil engineering student, laid out a diamond-shaped field at Cooperstown, New York and attempted ___65___ the rules governing the playing of ___66___ games as ‘town ball’ and ‘four old cats’, the ancestors of baseball. By the end of the Civil War, interest ___67 _ the game had grown rapidly. There were over  200 teams or clubs, ___68___ toured the country playing rivals. They belonged to a national association of ‘ Baseball Players’ that had proclaimed a set of standard rules. These teams were amateurs or semi-professionals, but as the game waxed in popularity, it offered opportunities for profit, and the first professional team, the Cincinnati Red Stockings, ___69___ in 1869. Other cities soon fielded professional teams, and in 1876 the present National League ___70___. 64. a) at whichb) then c) when   d) in that 65. a) standardizing  b) to standardize c) standardization 66. a) the  b) same  c) some  d) such 67. a) in  b) for  c) about  d) with 68. a) some  b) those of which c) some of which  d) of which 69. a) appeared  b) had appeared  c) was appearing d) has appeared 70. a) organised b) was organised c) had been organised d) had organised PART II COMPREHENSION (1 pt. each; 65 pts.) SECTION 1 : VOCABULARY Questions 71-80 On your answer sheet, mark the alternative which is closest in meaning to the underlined word or phrase. 71. He devised a folding toothbrush for travellers. a) sold  b) brought  c) invented d) described 72. Before landing the plane, the pilot checked with the tower for verification of her location. a) information about    b) guidance on   c) mention of    d) confirmation of 73. Eagles deliberately position their nests in high trees or on cliffs away from other animals. a) intentionally  b) independently c) convenientl  d) constantly 74. Rhythm, although associated most often with music, is a component of poetry as well. a) an element b) an attraction c) a virtue   d) a material 75. Most of the conversation between the men was intelligible. a) rapid b) disagreeable  c) understandable  d) negotiable 76. Proper insulation prevents heat loss during the winter and allows the building to remain cool in summer. a) aids b) stops c) reduces   d) produces 77. It is inevitable that smoking will damage your health. a) invading b) unhealthy c) unavoidabley  d) intriguing 78. Do you think your question is pertinent to the matter we are discussing? a) perceptive b) relevant  c) discriminating   d) apparent 79. The teacher asked the student to eliminate all the long sentences from the text. a) replace b) take out  c) cut down   d) substitute 80. Fish have lived on the earth longer than any other backboned animal and have shown great diversity throughout their lifespan. a) variation b) adaptation c) evolution  d) satisfaction Questions 81-90 On your answer sheet, mark the alternative which best completes the meaning of each sentence. 81. A politician’s private life should be _______ with his political beliefs so that people won’t accuse him of having double standards. a) reasonable b) considerate c) constant  d) consistent 82. I can’t possibly ________ with such behaviour in class so try to control yourselves. a) get away b) get on c) put up  d) put away 83. The governor faxed a message to the Ministry of Interior Affairs and demanded a(n) ________ reply so that he could take action immediately. a) urgent b) accurate c) genuine  d) rational 84. The girl’s ________ in Spanish made her a valuable translator. a) competition b) competence    c) eagerness  d) encouragement 85. People work very hard all their lives to ________ as many material possessions as possible. a) accumulate b) acknowledge  c) require  d) realise 86. Aspirin has become a widespread drug due to its ability to ________ all kinds of pain. a) devastate b) alleviate  c) accelerate  d) enhance 87. Jack _______ needs to be looked after. He cannot possibly continue his life as a bachelor. a) exceptionally b) in particular c) indefinitely  d) desperately 88. The long-term _______ of the break up of the Soviet Union are still far from clear. a) reasons b) interactions c) implications  d) solutions 89. Some people compare the ________ of a second language to the way a baby learns his first language. a) experience b) exception c) adoption  d) acquisition 90. Being so hard-working and efficient, he ________ a promotion. a) deserves b) avoids c) supports  d) invites SECTION 2 : LOGICAL SEQUENCE Questions 91-98 On your answer sheet, mark the alternative which best completes each sentence or thought.

91. Corporations are starting to reach the conclusion that desk-bound jobs constitute occupational hazards, so they are spending large sums of money on medical care to keep their employees physically and mentally healthy and productive. _______

a) The cause and cure of backaches are not always easy to pinpoint, even though thousands of employees are afflicted with back ailments.

b) Such expenditures have shaken large corporations into a realisation that drastic measures need to be taken to get desk-bound employees out of their seats.

c) In ten years’ time, most companies will have abandoned such programs due to their adverse effects on the health of employees.

d) An official report has been released blaming corporations for the back ailments of their employees.

92. Many people who have to start the day early find it difficult to wake up properly. For some of them, the solution is to drink two cups of coffee. Taken in reasonable amounts, the stimulating caffeine can _______. a) only be found in tea, coffee and cola b) produce certain unpleasant side effects c) help some people to work more efficiently d) give the feeling of being wide awake 93. It is undeniable that TV has very adverse effects on child psychology. Nevertheless, _______. a) many parents are very selective when choosing the right programs to watch b) they can learn a great deal from TV in spite of the harm it causes to their eyes c) parents seem to be quite reluctant to choose the right programs for their children d) many people just can’t give up watching violent movies on TV 94. Plastic furniture is light-weight and comfortable. Furthermore, _______. a) it is less expensive than wood furniture b) it is rarely used for interior decoration c) detergents change its colour d) it breaks under excessive weight 95. When a man competes, it seems winning becomes his primary objective. _______ a) Therefore, competition is the motivating feature of the modern capitalistic system. b) In fact, in the effort to avoid losing, he may ignore the moral aspects of competition. c) Similarly, the competitive structure of American society is responsible for the pressure felt by the average male. d) Indeed, on certain occasions, a man would favour his family, leisure-time activities and arts to competition. 96. We think of learning and memory as somehow separate functions. On the contrary, _______. a) studies on memory show that it has a distinct function b) there is interaction between the two c) they are stimulated by external factors d) the brain coordinates all parts of the human body 97. Men tend to be attracted by the speed of their computers. On the other hand, _______. a) women are much more interested in the machine’s utility b) technology means everything to them c) women imitate men in their pursuit of speed d) they are aware that computers are only machines 98. It is a well-known fact that divorce is an unpleasant experience for all the members of a family. As a result, _______. a) whether or not to get a divorce should be the choice of the couple involved, not other people b) people who do not love each other should never attempt such a thing c) the children of divorced parents suffer from psychological problems d) such a decision should not be made without considerable thought SECTION 3 : SUPPORTING IDEAS Questions 99-101 In the following items, three of the alternatives support the main statement or idea and one does not. Mark the alternative that DOES NOT support the given topic statement.99. DNA tests seem to solve many problems. a) They can determine fatherhood. b) Institutes have to have costly lab equipment to conduct them. c) Criminals can easily be identified by DNA tests. d) The probability of certain diseases can be detected by such tests.

100. Apart from being a means of communication, human language is one of the principal means of all mental activities.

a) Human language is, among other things, a means of thought, introspection and problem solving.

b) Along with other peculiarly human capacities, language is involved in the most important human characteristic – foresight.

c) Language keeps us aware of past and future, of continuity of existence and its extension beyond what is immediately sensed.

d) Human language, which is a system of interpersonal communication, is absolutely distinct from any system of communication used by other animals.

101. No matter how broad minded and modern we become, we cannot get rid of the tendency to see women as second-class citizens.

a) Even though today’s woman has become a member of the work force, her primary role continues to be that of homemaker.

b) In business life, there still seems to be discrimination against women.

c) Many working women complain that even though they contribute to the family budget, they don’t have a say in making decisions as far as purchases are concerned.

d) More and more women are experiencing the privilege of being helped by their husbands despite the negative reactions from other men in the society.

SECTION 4 : PARAGRAPH COMPLETION Questions 102-105 Mark the alternative which best completes each paragraph.

102. The wild turkey existed in great numbers when the settlers first arrived in America. _________ The axe, the plough and the gun are blamed for the decline of the wild turkey. Recent game propagation laws prohibit the shooting of anything but the bearded animals, usually males, to protect the brooding hens.

a) This great number seems to be a result of a combination of factors.

b) These days, however, their numbers have decreased so much that they can no longer be found in some states.

c) It is said that this particular breed of turkey is still found in abundance in many states of America.

d) This breed of turkey owes a lot to the settlers who attempted to increase the size of its population.

103. The fundamental components of the environment are plants, animals, minerals and water. When their inter-relationship does not change much from year to year, we observe a balance of nature. _________ As an example, the minerals taken from the soil are restored, and the plants that die are replaced by similar plants.

a) That is, the addition of plants, animals, minerals and water is equivalent to the quantity that has been removed.

b) After the balance of nature is disturbed, a period of rehabilitation must occur.

c) Sometimes, however, the balance of nature is disturbed either by a geological change or a local agitation.

d) The first life to appear is called pioneer flora and fauna, which is very temporary and soon replaced by other forms of life.

104. Balloons have recently been used in a new medical procedure, known as balloon valvuloplasty, to open up stiffened heart valves in aging adults. The four valves in the heart keep the blood going in the right direction, and if the valves become stiff, the result can be deadly. ___________ The inflated balloon will split the valves apart, allowing them to open and close more freely.

a) In the past, several other procedures were used to open stiff valves.

b) This procedure has been done since 1979 in children with valve disease, but it has just recently been done with adults. c) In this procedure, a small balloon is inserted into the heart and then inflated with a saline solution for up to forty seconds. d) After this procedure, the patient can be given a local painkiller and can leave the hospital in a few days.

105. Earthquakes are caused by the movement of 50-mile-thick plates that comprise the earth’s crust. More than two thousand earthquakes occur daily somewhere on our planet, but about 95 percent of them are too weak to be felt except by sensitive seismometers. ___________ Each year, however, about ten powerful earthquakes strike somewhere on earth, causing extensive damage and loss of life.

a) A strong earthquake can virtually destroy a city in seconds, leaving thousands of people dead, injured or homeless.

b) Of those that are felt by humans, most cause relatively little damage, particularly if they occur in sparsely populated areas.

c) A mild earthquake may do no more than rattle windows; a severe earthquake can devastate a city and reduce it to a pile of debris.

d) Scientists have observed that certain phenomena seem to occur before an earthquake as the pressure within the plates intensifies.

SECTION 5 : TEXT COMPREHENSION Questions 106- 135 On your answer sheet, mark the alternative which best answers the question or completes the statement about the text.

Deliberate car-wrecking exhibitions, known as demolition derbies, may be safer than you think. The cars used are reinforced in places that might give way on impact, injuring the driver, so now the process of wrecking cars while keeping the person inside safe has practically been reduced to a science.

106. According to the text, _________.

a) demolition derbies appear to be more dangerous than they actually are

b) it is against the rules of the derbies to make any changes in the car

c) if the car is wrecked, the driver always has at least minor injuries

d) scientific studies indicate that demolition derbies should be prohibited

Our New Pacific Budget Fares: Just $690 round trip to Manila 3 Just $698 round trip to Hong Kong or Taipei from San Francisco or Los Angeles. You can fly to the Orient on one of our daily 747 flights with confirmed reservations and at big discount off Economy Fare, too. To qualify for our special fare you must buy your ticket at least 21 days in advance 6 of when you plan to leave. Your flight will be confirmed seven to fourteen days before the week you take off. Fifty percent rebates in the case of change or cancellation.

107. According to the text, the flights _________. a) leave three times a day b) are sometimes on 747s c) are cheaper than Economy Fare d) are confirmed 21 days in advance 108. To arrange for a flight, the passenger must _________. a) buy a ticket one month in advance b) notify the airline of the exact date he will leave c) give seven to fourteen days’ notice if he wants all his money back d) be willing to take the flight assigned to him

Writers of advertisements are amateur psychologists. They know just what will appeal to our instincts and emotions. In general, there are three major areas in our nature at which advertising aims – preservation, 3 pride and pleasure. Preservation, for example, relates to our innate desire to live longer, know more, and look better than our forefathers did. Pride encompasses all sorts of things – our desire to show off, to brag about our prosperity or our good taste, to be one of the elite. We all want to enjoy the fruits of our 6 labours, and this is where the pleasure principle comes in. We want to be entertained, to eat and drink well, and to relax in comfortable surroundings.

109. An advertisement about the effects of vitamins on our body would probably appeal to our sense of _________. a) preservation b) pride c) pleasure  d) all of the above 110. Based on the information given in the text, in which of the following situations would you feel proud? a) Sitting by a poolside drinking cocktails b) Looking 35 at the age of 50 c) Owning three expensive cars d) Sleeping in a water bed 111. Successful advertisers _________. a) are aware of human nature b) have strong instincts and emotions c) satisfy all our desires d) try to entertain us

Joan is fourteen years old, a bright student, and suffering from self-imposed starvation. She has anorexia nervosa. Anorexia means ‘without appetite’ and nervosa means ‘of nervous origin’. One morning six months ago Joan looked at herself in the mirror and decided she needed to lose some weight. Then 1.65 meters tall and weighing 50 kilos, she presently weighs 37 kilos and is in the 5 hospital where she is undergoing psychiatric treatment and being fed intravenously. What happened to Joan? Why has she ruthlessly starved herself nearly to death? Joan is a typical anorexic – an adolescent girl who refuses to eat for the purpose of rebelling against the pressures imposed upon her by the adult environment. Family members – sometimes the mother, sometimes the father, sometimes both – require her to achieve more than they have in their lives. In her mind, school 10 unites with her family to push her forward. Submissive for years, what does she finally do? She refuses food, says no to the two forces that are pushing her. Instead of growing into a mature woman, she holds back her physical growth by self-imposed starvation. In fact, she regresses to childhood, to the stage when she lacked curves. No one expected much from her then, and she was dependent upon adults who gave her love and approval without demanding anything from her in return. 15 Anorexia nervosa, formerly not recognised as a disease, has become common among adolescent girls. Today the cure is prolonged treatment by a psychiatrist who initiates discussion among family members and the patient to determine the causes and ways to eliminate them in the future.

112. In line 1, ‘self-imposed’ means _________ oneself. a) evaluated by b) participated in c) impressed by  d) forced on 113. In line 17, ‘them’ refers to the _________. a) family members b) family members and the patient c) causes  d) causes and ways 114. The root of anorexia nervosa is _________. a) lack of appetite b) psychological problems c) adolescence  d) physical deficiencies 115. It can be inferred from the text that those who have anorexia nervosa _________. a) generally have ambitious parents b) were fat in their childhood c) want to look more attractive d) can be cured by a short treatment 116. According to the text, _________. a) the origin of anorexia nervosa lies in a happy childhood b) anorexia nervosa is a reaction against neglectful parents c) anorexic adolescents prefer life at school to family life d) anorexic adolescents do not want to take on the responsibilities of adulthood 117. The main idea of paragraph 2 is that _________. a) an anorexic is most likely to be an adolescent b) an anorexic is in rebellion against the pressures in her environment c) Joan regressed to childhood because she thought she looked prettier then d) Joan’s parents wanted her to succeed in doing the things they couldn’t do

America has tried to combat its epidemic alcohol problem with everything from expensive therapies to prohibition. By contrast, the Chinese have long relied on a simple and inexpensive remedy, an extract of  kudzu root. Now American researchers confirm that it appears to be extraordinarily effective. A recent survey revealed that 80 percent of Chinese alcoholics who took Radix Puerariae for two to four weeks 5 stopped craving a cold one. The herb, sold over the counter like aspirin, not only kills the desire for liquor, but according to Chinese herbalists, also improves the function of vital organs adversely affected by alcohol. So why isn’t this miracle herb being used in the United States? The Food and Drug Administration requires a more convincing proof than a billion Chinese. And they may soon have it. A team of Harvard 10 researchers reports that the kudzu extract apparently works on another group of alcoholics – hamsters. The furry rodents are among nature’s most natural drunks; given the choice between alcohol and water, they’ll choose the booze every time. But, according to a paper published by the National Academy of Sciences, the hamsters cut their alcohol consumption in half after sipping a synthetic form of kudzu extract. And it had no effect on their other eating or drinking habits. “They reacted to it in the same 15 way the Chinese herbalists say their patients do,” says Bert Valee, a Harvard Medical School biochemist. The researchers don’t know why the kudzu works. But they’re planning to move quickly to human trials. A successful test could result in an anti-alcohol treatment being made widely available in the United States within a few years. And then your hamster will have no excuse for his hangover.

118. According to the text, _________. a) America has more advanced and effective therapies for alcoholism than elsewhere in the world b) the kudzu root cure for alcoholism is more popular in America than in China c) there is more than one positive effect of the kudzu root d) the kudzu root actually worked on 20% of the Chinese alcoholics 119. In line 5, the expression ‘craving a cold one’ possibly means _________. a) wanting to drink liquor b) eating kudzu root c) having colds d) giving up alcoholic beverages 120. It can be understood from the text that the US Food and Drug Administration _________. a) has already licensed kudzu root in the US b) is extremely cautious about giving licenses to new products c) has been influenced by the experiences of a billion Chinese d) is acting on some Harvard researchers’ reports 121. Hamsters are small, grass eating animals which _________. a) love to drink alcohol b) hate water c) are unaffected by the kudzu root d) are used by the Food and Drug Administration for tests 122. According to the text, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE? a) Lab experiments using kudzu root on human beings have not yet been made in the US. b) Both the Chinese herbalists and the Harvard researchers use kudzu root in treating humans. c) In the near future, kudzu root may be used in the US for treating alcoholism. d) The Chinese and the American approaches to medicine are quite different.

Before the Nobel Prize in literature was awarded to John Steinbeck in 1962, only five Americans had been previously thus honoured, the most recent being Ernest Hemingway in 1954 and William Faulkner in 5 1949. Steinbeck had been considered on those occasions and also in 1945. As the honour is by far the greatest any writer can receive, Steinbeck was elated. The feeling of elation was tempered slightly, however, by the observation expressed by Steinbeck in 1956, that recipients of the Nobel Prize seldom write anything of value afterwards. He cited Hemingway and Faulkner as examples, minimizing the point that by the time of their selection most writers had already written their best work. At the age of sixty, 10 when he received the award himself, Steinbeck wrote to a friend that he would not have accepted the award

 he not believed that he would continue to write well, that he “could beat the rap.” Like his contemporaries, and others as well, however, he did not. There was no expectation or need that the writer do so, for Steinbeck had long since made his remark in modern American literature.

123. According to the passage, Steinbeck observed that authors who receive the Nobel Prize for literature _________. a) had already finished writing popular works b) should follow the examples of Hemingway and Faulkner c) rarely write significant works afterwards d) are among the greatest contemporary writers 124. Steinbeck was sixty years old in _________. a) 1949 b) 1954 c) 1956  d) 1962 125. According to the passage, Steinbeck wrote his best work _________. a) before receiving the Nobel Prize b) in an expressive style c) while he was feeling elated d) guided by his contemporaries 126. Before 1949, how many Americans had received the Nobel prize for literature? a) Two b) Three  c) Four  d) Five 127. In the second paragraph, the phrase ‘do so’ refers to _________. a) feel elated at receiving the Nobel Prize b) accept the Nobel Prize if nominated c) write well after receiving the Nobel Prize d) honour Nobel Prize winners of the past 128. The author’s attitude toward John Steinbeck is that he _________. a) was an exceptionally different author b) should have received the Nobel Prize earlier c) wrote equally well throughout his life d) earned his reputation well before 1962

The Indians of the Andes call it Camanchaca, the wetting fog. When the cold air rising from the icy Humboldt current collides with the warm air over the sunbaked Chilean coast, it forms a thick, white ribbon of mist that hugs the high ridge above Chungungo, 600 kilometers north of Santiago. But the Camanchaca clouds never burst into rain – by afternoon, the sun burns them away and the landscape 5 remains arid as any desert. The lack of rainfall made agriculture almost impossible, and even basic needs like drinking water and sanitation became luxuries. A shower was a rare luxury, and vegetables came from the market 80 kilometers away. But fortunes have changed for Chungungo’s 320 residents. It was no sudden climatic shift – the village still receives only about 40 centimeters of rain a year – but rather the adaptation of traditional 10 technologies to harvest the Camanchaca. High on the ridge overlooking the town, near the abandoned El Tofo iron mine, several dozen pairs of wooden posts have been planted in the ground. Strung between them are giant nets made of fine polypropylene. Like great spider webs, these nets capture the fog, trapping pearls of water in the fine mesh. The droplets slowly trickle down the mesh into a plastic trough, and gravity does the rest. The troughs drain into rubber tubing, which transports the water 15 through a series of small tanks and filters and finally to a 25,000-gallon storage tank 2,000 feet below, where it is treated with chlorine to kill germs. On a good day, the ‘fog harvest’ supplies 2,500 gallons of fresh water – all the water Chungungo can drink plus some for bathing and gardening. Flower and vegetable gardens have appeared in patches that were once only dust and gravel. Now, the residents wash clothes every day, grow their vegetables and take a bath any time they want. 20 Reaping the fog is hardly new. For centuries, the Quechua placed bowls below tree trunks to harvest fog water, and there is evidence that the practice dates back thousands of years. In the 1960s, Chilean scientists began to research ways to use the fog to help restore forests that had been levelled to stoke the wood-burning furnaces of iron mines like El Tofo. “But we never imagined supplying drinking water,” said Waldo Canto Veras, director of the Chilean Forestry Agency, Conaf. With a $150,000 25 grant and technical help from Canada, Conaf succeeded in reaping the fog. The water is not only clean but half as expensive as hauling water over the mountain by truck, the only way to supply the village since an electrical train line that served the iron mine shut down when the mine closed in the 1960s. ‘This project has shown them that there are cheap, practical, environmentally friendly ways to bring

water to poor communities. 30 That message is resonating worldwide. Some 47 coastal locations in 30 countries have conditions similar to Chungungo’s. Officials in Asia, Africa and other regions of Latin America have visited the town, which can supply a population of about 1,000, and begun research into their own coastal fog systems. In Chungungo, the ready supply of water has brought not only new uses like gardening and icemaking but also newcomers, increasing the strain on the new system. But that seems a small price to a 35 people whose hopes, like their lands, dried up long ago.

129. In line 2 ‘it’ refers to the _________ a) wetting fog b) warm air c) cold air d) Humboldt current 130. In the past, the village of Chungungo suffered from _________. a) a dense fog which made life difficult b) lack of water for drinking and sanitation c) the remoteness of the region from Santiago d) not eating any vegetables 131. The technology to harvest water from fog is applied in Chungungo because _________. a) the yearly rainfall has dropped to only 40 cm lately b) water from the fog is contaminated c) the system which is used is very cheap d) the fog itself does not precipitate as rain 132. It can be inferred from the text that the most important component of the fog harvesting system is the _________. a) wooden posts b) plastic trough  c) polypropylene nets  d) rubber tubing 133. Obtaining water from fog _________. a) is both economical and efficient with the new system b) had been used in the past in iron mines c) is a new practice for the Chileans d) cannot yield drinking water for poor communities 134. Conaf’s project was initiated in order to _________. a) supply drinking water c) restore the Chilean forests b) clean the water supply d) reap the fog 135. According to the text, which statement is NOT TRUE about the fog harvesting system? a) It has set an example for other countries. b) It can supply water for a very big town. c) It has made new uses of water possible. d) It has attracted the attention of authorities from areas with similar conditions. THE END OF THE EXAM   SAMPLE PROFICIENCY EXAM ANSWER KEY Q 1 – 70 0.5 point 1. a 2. d 3. c 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. d 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. d 12. b 13. c 14. d 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. a 22. b 23. d 24. b 25. c 26. b 27. b 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. a 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. c 42. b 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. a 47. d 48. a 49. d 50. a 51. c 52. b 53. c 54. d 55. b 56. a 57. c 58. b 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. d 63. c 64. c 65. b 66. d 67. a 68. c 69. a 70. b Q 71 – 135 1 point 71. c 72. d 73. a 74. a 75. c 76. b 77. c 78. b 79. b 80. a 81. d 82. c 83. a 84. b 85. a 86. b 87. d 88. c 89. d 90. a 91. b 92. d 93. c 94. a 95. b 96. b 97. a 98. d 99. b 100. d 101. d 102. b 103. a 104. c 105. b 106. a 107. c 108. b 109. a 110. c 111. a 112. d 113. c 114. b 115. a 116. d 117. b 118. c 119. a 120. b 121. a 122. b 123. c 124. d 125. a 126. b 127. c 128. d 129. c 130. b 131. d 132. c 133. a 134. c 135. b Contents of METU-EPE METU-EPE consists of two stages, each administered on a separate day. Both stages of the test are equally weighted, each contributing 50 points to the overall total of 100 points. STAGE I : Language Use & Reading Comprehension (80 minutes / 50 pts.) STAGE II : Listening Comprehension, Note Taking & Writing (100 – 110 minutes / 50 pts.) Stage One of METU-EPE determines whether a candidate may take the second stage of the test or not. The final METU-EPE scores of those candidates who do not qualify for the second stage of the test will be whatever they have scored on the first stage of the test. What follows is brief information on the contents of each stage of the METU-EPE, its comprising sections, assessment objectives, and some sample items. 1 STAGE ONE (Duration: 80 minutes / Total 50 pts.): LANGUAGE USE AND READING COMPREHENSION PART A – Language Use (40 questions / 0.5 pts. each; total 20 pts.)All multiple choice questions, one correct option (key), three distractors. Candidates mark their choices on an optic form.



I – Language Use

To assess the candidate’s ability to decode simple, compound and complex sentences and to detect  correct, appropriate language structures, vocabulary and discourse markers. Also, to assess the candidate’s awareness of the essentials and intricacies of English grammar, including tenses, prepositions, idiomatic expressions andstylistic variations of certain structures. Sentences and paragraphs taken from various authentic sources. When necessary, some single-sentence items areconstructed by test writers.

10 –15 texts of varying lengths, with 1 – 15 or more blanks.

Questions 1-40

On your answer sheet, mark the alternative which best completes each sentence /


Sample Item

Over 4,000 children in the developing world ____5____ from measles every day. This figure is just the tip of the iceberg, because not every child ____6____ measles dies of the disease. Measles can lead to child malnutrition ____7____ vitamin A deficiency, in itself responsible for over 100,000 deaths a year. All it takes is one single vaccination to immunize a child against the disease. ____8____ prevent measles and the subsequent malnutrition, but it will also reduce the risk of diarrhea and pneumonia, two of the complications the disease may cause.

5. a) has died 6. a) catches 7. a) as well as 8. a) Should it only

b) have died b) who catches b) but not b) Not only will it

c) die c) has caught c) except for c) It will only

d) dies d) is caught d) just as d) It doesn’t only

Correct answers: 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. b

PART B – Reading Comprehension (30 questions / 1 pt. each; total 30 pts.)

All multiple choice questions, one correct option (key), three distractors. Candidates mark their choices on an optic form.



I – Logical Sequence

To assess the candidate’s ability to recognize the relationship between ideas in a text and to recognize and interpret cohesive devices for linking different parts of a text. Sentences taken from various authentic sources.


Questions 41-44

On your answer sheet, mark the alternative which best completes each sentence or


Sample Item

42. The fur trade is a controversial issue. On the one hand, fur farmers and sellers are fighting to be allowed to continue producing fur goods, and, on the other hand, ___________.

a) the fur traders say that they do not cause unnecessary suffering to animals

b) people concerned about animal rights are trying to prevent the on going trade

c) if the trade were made illegal, hunters without licenses would cause greater suffering to animals

d) an animal has more right to live than a human does to wear its coat

The correct answer is b.


II – Supporting Ideas

To assess the candidate’s ability to recognize ideas that support a given topic sentence. Sentences taken from authentic sources such as academic texts, course books newspaper and magazine articles.

Question 45-47

In the following items, three of the alternatives support the main statement or idea and one does not. Mark the alternative that DOES NOT support the given topic statement.

Sample Item

45. While life outside the city is the secret dream of certain city-dwellers, it has many drawbacks.

a) Because there are fewer people, one has a smaller number of friends.

b) One is much closer to nature and can enjoy more peace and quiet.

c) Entertainment, particularly in the evening, is difficult to find.

d) There are fewer services, thus fewer employment opportunities.

The correct answer is b.


III – Paragraph Completion

To assess the candidate’s ability to recognize the relationship between ideas within a text, discourse organization and

transitions that tie ideas to one another in a paragraph.Paragraphs taken from authentic sources such as academic texts,course books newspaper and magazine articles.

Questions 48-50

Mark the alternative which best completes each paragraph.

Sample Item

48. Between 1820 and 1840, an estimated 700,000 immigrants arrived in the United States, mainly from the British Isles and German-speaking areas of continental Europe. During the 1840s, this substantial flow suddenly became a flood. No less than 4,200,000 crossed the Atlantic between 1840 and 1860. This was the greatest influx in proportion to total population — then about 20 million — that the nation has ever experienced. ___________. Smaller contingents came from Switzerland, Norway, Sweden, and the Netherlands.

a) Many came to escape great suffering because of natural causes or systems that kept them in poverty

b) The great “push” factor that caused a million and a half Irish to leave their homeland was the great potato famine

c) The largest single source of the new mass immigration was Ireland, but Germany was not far behind

d) Yet, what many of them found in their new land was not exactly what they expected

The correct answer is c.



IV – Text Comprehension

To assess the candidate’s ability to understand the key ideas in a text and answer comprehension questions about it, to distinguish between different levels of  information, to identify the purpose of a text, to understand the author’s point of view, to make out implicit meaning and to guess word meanings. Texts taken from various authentic sources.

Caution is exercised to select texts in a balanced  fashion from both social and physical sciences aimed at popular readers; i.e., not requiring very specialized background knowledge. 5 – 7 Texts of varying lengths accompanied by 1 – 10 questions.

Questions 51-70

On your answer sheet, mark the alternative which best answers the question or completes the statement about the text. Sample Item One of the leading schools of psychological thought in the twentieth century is behaviorism — the belief that the role of the psychologist is to study behavior, which is observable, rather than conscious or unconscious thought, which is not. Probably the best-known proponent of behaviorism is B.F. Skinner, who is famous for his research on how rewards and punishments influence behavior. He came to believe that positive reinforcements such as praise, food, or money were more effective in promoting good behavior than negative reinforcement, or punishment. 52. The school of behaviourism is concerned with ___________. a) conscious thought patterns c) psychological thought b) observable actions d) unconscious behaviour 53. According to Skinner, good behaviour is ___________. a) effective when one is punished b) important in influencing rewards and punishment c) promoted by not being praised d) encouraged by positive reinforcement Correct answers: 52. b 53. dSTAGE TWO (Duration : 100 – 110 minutes / Total 50 pts.): LISTENING COMPREHENSION, NOTE-TAKING AND WRITING PART A – Listening Comprehension (40 questions / 0.5 pts. each; total 20 pts.; Duration: 40-45 minutes) All multiple choice questions, one correct option (key), three distractors. Candidates mark their choices in the question booklet as they listen to the recording and then transfer their answers to an optic form, in pencil. SECTION OBJECTIVES SOURCE OF TEXTS NUMBER OF QUESTIONS I – StatementsTo assess the candidate’s ability to deduce the meaning of functional expressions, idiomatic expressions, vocabulary and structure, to recognize paraphrasing and to draw conclusions. Sentences mostly constructed  by testitem writers. 7 – 8 statements

In this section, you will hear a statement for each item and a question related to it. Before you listen to each statement and the related question, you will be given 5seconds in order to have a look at the 4 alternative answers to the question. Each statement will be spoken only once. After you listen to each statement you must mark the alternative which best answers the question that follows.

Sample Item You will hear: (Speaker A) Have a look at the four alternatives given. (Speaker B) Usually, there is so much air pollution in cities that it is more sensible to live in the country than to be exposed to pollution. (Speaker A) What does the speaker mean? You will read: a) Air pollution is very bad in cities, so you should move to the country to live longer. b) Instead of being exposed to air pollution in cities, it is wiser to live in the country. c) Despite the harmful effects of air pollution, it is more exciting to live in cities. d) It doesn’t make sense to leave the cities just because of some exposure to air pollution. The correct answer is b because it recommends living in the country due to the air pollution in cities.SECTION OBJECTIVES SOURCE OF TEXTS NUMBER OF QUESTIONS II – DialoguesTo assess the candidate’s ability to deduce the meaning of functional expressions, idiomatic expressions, vocabulary and structure, to  recognize paraphrasing and to draw conclusions. Dialogues constructed by test item writers. 4 – 5 dialogues;

In this section, you will hear a dialogue for each item and a question related to it. Before you listen to each dialogue and the related question, you will be given 5 seconds in order to have a look at the 4 alternative answers to the question. Each dialogue will be spoken only once. After you listen to each dialogue you must mark the alternative which best answers the question that follows.

Sample Item You will hear… (Speaker A) I’m taking so many courses that I need a lot of time to work on my assignments. (Speaker B) Will you have the time to complete all of them? (Speaker A) All of my classes are in the morning, so I can spare time every week day from noon on. And of course, my weekends are free. (Speaker C) When can the student study? You will read: a) Every morning. b) Afternoons and weekends. c) When she is in class. d) Weekdays. The correct answer is b because the student has classes till noon every day and she is free at weekends.SECTION OBJECTIVES SOURCE OF TEXTS NUMBER OF TEXTS III – Mini TalksTo assess the candidate’s ability to comprehend short stretches of spoken discourse and to predict what will follow. 7 – 9 sentence texts taken from authentic sources and converted into spoken English. 4 – 5 mini talks

For the items in this section, you will hear a mini talk for each item. However, the last sentence of each mini talk is incomplete. Before you listen to each mini talk, you will be given 5 seconds in order to have a look at the 4 options that may complete the last sentence. Each mini talk will be spoken only once. After you listen to each mini talk and hear the “beep” sound, mark the alternative which best completes the sentence.

Sample Item You will hear…

(Speaker C) Scientists wondered for a long time just how whales are related to land mammals. They believed that there must have been some kind of in-between mammal. It would have lived partly in the sea and partly on land. However, they had no evidence until the discovery of Pakicetus’, which lived 50 million years ago. This animal… (beep)

You will read: a) was a kind of large fish living in deep water b) provided the link between whales and land mammals c) looked like mammals living on land d) lived far up in the mountains and ate mostly leaves The correct answer is b because the talk is about how whales and land mammals are related .SECTION OBJECTIVES SOURCE OF TEXTS NUMBER OF QUESTIONS IV – Interviews

To assess the candidate’s ability to follow a conversation, to identify specific information on a range of topics and to distinguish between facts and opinions. Semi-academic interviews taken from authentic sources. Caution is exercised to make sure the interviews do not require specialized background knowledge.

2 interviews with 5 – 6 questions each

For items in this section, you will hear two interviews. You will hear each interview only once. As you listen to the interviews, mark the choice that best answers each question. Before you listen to each interview, you will have 40 seconds to have a look at the questions related to that interview.

Sample Item You will hear…

For questions 17-21, you will hear a radio program on which a doctor answers the mostfrequently asked questions about SARS (or Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome). The radio program was broadcast in early April 2003. As you listen, mark the choice that best answers each question.

Now you have 40 seconds to have a look at the questions. (…..

(Speaker A) On this edition of Q&A, we’ll be focusing on SARS The continuing spread of SARS has all of Asia — and much of the rest of the world — on edge. What do we know about this mysterious disease? And how can we protect ourselves against it? Our guest today is Doctor Miller. He is going to answer the questions most frequently asked by the audience about SARS First of all, what is SARS, Doctor Miller?

(Speaker B) Well, according to the World Health Organization, SARS is a disease caused by a virus that affects the lungs. It leads to a dry cough, shortness of breath, stiffness, fever and loss of appetite. The symptoms are very similar to those associated with the flu, except that SARS can appear as pneumonia in chest x-rays. …….)

You will read: 17. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of SARS? a) Stiff muscles b) Cough c) Drop in body temperature d) Difficulty in breathing The correct answer is c. 10 SECTION OBJECTIVES SOURCE OF TEXTS NUMBER OF QUESTIONS V – Mini Lectures

To assess the candidate’s ability to follow and comprehend extended spoken input and identify its purpose, to track the development of the argument, to identify specific information on a range of topics, to distinguish  between facts and opinions and to distinguish main ideas from supporting details. The transcript of a recorded lecture on a topic related to either social or physical sciences, not excessively specialized.

2 mini lectures with 6 – 7 questions each

For items 28-40 in this section, you will hear two mini lectures. You will hear each lecture only once. As you listen to the lectures, mark the choice that best answers each question. Before you listen to each lecture, you will have 40 seconds to have a look at the questions for the related lecture.

Sample Item You will hear…For questions 28-34, you will hear a mini lecture on TOMATOES. As you listen to the lecture, mark the choice which best answers each question or completes the statement. Now you have 40 seconds to have a look at the questions.

(Speaker) ………The tomato has been grown since prehistoric times. We believe that it first originated in South America and was cultivated by Indians in the Andes Mountains. More than 3,000 years ago, it moved from South America to Mexico. The tomato was first introduced to Europe in the 16th century, but it was not until the 19th century that it became popular in Europe. This is most probably because Europeans considered the tomato poisonous and therefore  inedible.……

You will read: 28. The tomato was ___________________. a) first grown in Mexico b) not known in Europe till the 19th century c) first cultivated during prehistoric times d) brought to South America by Indians The correct answer is c. 11 PART B – Note-Taking (4 – 5 questions; total 10 pts.; Duration: 20 minutes) All open ended questions to be answered referring to the notes taken while listening to a lecture. Notes to be taken on a separate sheet, answer sheet to be distributed after the text is spoken. SECTION OBJECTIVES SOURCE OF TEXTS NUMBER OF QUESTIONS I – Note-Taking

To assess the candidate’s ability to follow and comprehend extended spoken input, to predict the organization and the content of a talk throughout, to recognize the outline of the talk and the important information and to take notes simultaneously.

The transcript of a recorded lecture of 5 – 6 minutes on a topic related to either social or physical sciences, not requiring specialized background knowledge.

__ (Notes taken not to be graded) Sample Note SheetIn this section, you will hear a lecture on PHOBIA. Take notes on the following points as you listen to the talk/lecture:

  • • Definition of phobia,
  • • Types of phobias and their definitions,
  • • Distribution of phobias within the population,
  • • Ways of treating phobias, the techniques employed, and their side effects, if any.

Later, you will be asked to write answers to 5 open-ended questions. Your notes will not be graded. II – Answering Open-Ended Questions In addition to those stated above, to assess the candidate’s ability to write short answers to questions related to the talk by referring to notes taken earlier. __4 – 5 questions Sample Item Q. Define social phobia and give an example of it. Definition: _________________________________________________________ Example: _________________________________________________________ 12 PART C – Writing (Total 20 pts. ; Duration: 45 minutes) Section I: All open ended questions. (5 pts.) Section II: Paragraph to be written on a separate sheet. (15 pts.) SECTION OBJECTIVES SOURCE OF TEXTS NUMBER OF QUESTIONS I – Responding to a Text To assess the candidate’s ability to recognize the attitude of the writer towards the issue, his point of view and how well he supports his argument. A text taken from an authentic source such as an academic text, newspaper or magazine. 1 – 2 questions Sample Item What is the argument of the author in this text? State this in one sentence and write down the author’s supports / reasons in one or two sentences. II – Writing a Paragraph

To assess the candidate’s ability to use correct, appropriate language structures, vocabulary and discourse features in writing, to follow the conventions of standard written English, to produce a cohesive and coherent piece of writing.The text in Part I above will serve as a tool to activate the candidate’s schemata, concepts and vocabulary relevant to the topic and to help him think about the issue prior to writing.1 paragraph of approximately 150 words

For instance, if the reading text in Section I above is about the Internet as a source of information, a writing task like the one below might be given.

Sample Item Write a paragraph of approximately 150 words comparing the library and the Internet as a research tool. In your paragraph make sure: * you write an introductory sentence indicating what you will write about; * all your ideas are relevant to the topic; * you address the task in full. Your paragraph will be graded according to: * the organization, * how fully you respond to the task set, * the content, * accuracy of language. 13 METU-EPE Scoring Procedure and Guidelines

  • Stage One – Language Use and Reading Comprehension and Stage

Two / Part A – Listening Comprehension are scored by an optic reader.

  • Stage Two – Part B / Note-Taking is graded by a group of experienced raters in accordance with an answer key provided. The raters go through standardization before each grading session. Each paper is graded by two co-raters.
  • Stage Two – Part C / Writing is graded by a group of experienced raters in accordance with the guidelines provided. The raters are trained in using the guidelines for grading in a standardization session before each grading. Each paper is graded by two co-raters.

(Initial trials revealed that inter-scorer reliability among pairs of trained raters ranges between r: .88 and r: .92) Reporting of the METU-EPE Scores

  • Stage One – Language Use and Reading Comprehension

The results of Stage One are announced within 1 or 2 days after the exam, indicating whete her the candidate has qualified to sit for Stage Two of the exam or not. That is, candidates indicated as “qualify” in the exam results list will sit for  Stage Two, whereas candidates indicated as “not qualify” will either study at the Department of Basic English or take the next scheduled exam in accordance with their status. In order to qualify for Stage Two of the METU-EPE, a test taker must have obtained a minimum of 50% achievement in Stage One. The final METU-EPE scores of those candidates who do not qualify to sit for Stage Two will be announced along with the Stage Two results.

  • METU-EPE Scores

The final METU-EPE scores are announced within 3 – 5 days after Stage Two of the exam as a) the total grade, and b) the grade for each component. The list of scores are posted on the bulletin boards at the Registrar’s Office and the School of Foreign Languages. The scores are also announced on the Web page of the School of Foreign Languages: http://www.metu.edu.tr/home/www93/prf/anasayfa.htm Those candidates who have qualified for Stage Two but failed the METU-EPE will have to take the whole exam (Stage One and Stage Two) again if they are entitled to.


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