Yıldız Teknik Üniversitesi İngilizce hazırlık atlama sınavı
1773 yılında kurulan ve bugüne dek ülkemize sayısız değerler kazandırmış olan Yıldız Teknik Üniversitesi, uluslararası arenada da bir dünya üniversitesi olarak gelişimini sürdürmektedir. Yeni kayıt olan öğrenciler YDY tarafından hazırlanan Yeterlilik Sınavı’na girerler. Son iki yıl içerisinde TOEFL PBT’den 500, TOEFL IBT’den 60 veya IELTS’den 6 puan almış olanlarla YDY Yeterlilik Sınavı’ndan 60 alanlar fakültelerinde eğitime başlamaya hak kazanırlar. Bu şartları yerine getiremeyenler ise seviye belirleme sınavına girerek hazırlık eğitimlerini görecekleri kurlara yerleştirilirler. Hazırlık programı içerisindeki her kur için ders saat sayısı, dil beceri seviyesine göre değişmektedir.
A Seviyesi (üst-orta seviye/upper-intermediate): Bu öğrenciler genellikle bir dönem sonunda yeterlilik sınavını geçebilecek seviyededirler. A seviyesindeki öğrencilerin çoğu daha önceden İngilizce eğitimi almış durumdadır. Genellikle zayıf oldukları alan yazma becerisidir.
B Seviyesi (orta seviye/intermediate): Daha önce İngilizce ile tanışmış, fakat yazılı ve sözlü İngilizceye hakim olmayan öğrencilerdir.
C Seviyesi (alt-orta seviye/pre-intermediate): Genellikle daha önce İngilizce dersi görmüş olsalar da, temel bilgileri de hatırlamayan öğrencilerdir.
D Seviyesi (başlangıç seviyesi/beginners): Çok az İngilizce eğitim görmüş ya da hiç görmemiş öğrencilerdir ve yoğun bir müfredata gereksinim duyarlar. 1 aylık yoğun bir gramer eğitiminin ardından okuma ve yazma eğitimine de odaklanmaya başlarlar.
100 üzerinden 60 ve üzeri ortalamaya sahip öğrenciler Yeterlilik Sınavı’na girebilirler. Ocak ayında Yeterlilik Sınavı’na girecek A ve B seviyesi öğrencilerin Yarıyıl sınav notları 20 üzerinden değil 40 üzerinden hesaplanır. A seviyesinde 60, B seviyesinde 70 ortalamanın altında kalan öğrenciler için hesaplamalar yukarıdaki tabloda belirtilen şekilde yapılır. İTÜ YDY öğrencilerinin Yeterlilik Sınavı’nı iki yıl içerisinde geçmeleri gerekmektedir. İki yılın sonunda yeterli notu alamamış olmaları durumunda kendilerine ÖSYM tercih formları iletilerek Türkçe eğitim veren üniversitelerden birinde, bölümlerine denk bir bölüme tercihleri doğrultusunda yerleştirilirler.
İngilizce Hazırlık Programında İngilizce düzeylerine göre yerleştikleri sınıflarda, bir veya iki yarıyıl yüksek standartlı yoğun eğitime devam edecek öğrencilerin kısa zamanda eksiklerini tamamlayıp istenilen düzeye gelmeleri beklenmektedir. Zira, İTÜ’de lisans eğitimine devam edebilmenin ön koşulu İngilizce diline, bu dilde verilen dersleri izleyecek, sözlü ve yazılı iletişim kuracak, yayınları anlayacak ve onlardan yararlanabilecek düzeyde hâkim olmaktır
Hazırlık programındaki öğrencilerin bir dönemde başarılı olma şansları vardır. İlk yarıyıl sonunda ortalaması %50 olan A (İleri düzey sınıflar) grubu öğrencileri ve %80 olan B (Orta düzey sınıflar) grubu öğrencileri, Ocak ayındaki Yeterlilik Sınavına girerler. Bu sınavdan %60 ve üstü puan alarak başarı sağlayanlar, 2. Yarıyılda kendi fakültelerinde lisans eğitimine başlarlar. %60 barajının geçemeyenler ise hazırlık okulundaki derslerine devam ederler. C ve D (Başlangıç düzeyindeki sınıflar) grubu öğrencileri ilk yarıyıl sonundaki Yeterlilik Sınavına katılamazlar. İTÜ Proficiency sınavı yılda dört kez olmak üzere: Eylül, Ocak, Haziran ve Temmuz aylarında yapılmaktadır.
Yeterlilik Sınavında neler sorulur?
İTÜ yeterlilik sınavı 3 bölümden oluşmaktadır. Birinci bölüm olan Use of English bölümünde öğrencilerin akademik düzeyde dilbilgisi ve kelime bilgisi yetkinliklerini ölçmek için hazırlanmış sorular vardır. Öğrencilere 4 veya 5 farklı okuma parçası verilir ve parçalarda boş bırakılan yerlerin tamamlanması istenir. Öğrenciler her boşluk için verilen 4 seçenekten birini seçmelidirler. Toplam 35 tane soru vardır ve her soru 1 puan değerindedir. Bu bölüm toplam 35 puan değerindedir.
İkinci bölüm olan Reading Comprehension (Okuma ve anlam) bölümünde öğrencilerin okuduğunu anlama, yorumlama ve bilmedikleri sözcüklerin anlamını çıkarma becerileri ölçülür. Öğrencilere 3 veya 4 farklı okuma parçası verilir ve bu parçalarla ilgili soruların yanıtlanması istenir. Sorular parçanın ana fikrini, bir takım ayrıntılarını, öğrencilerin parçadaki anlatılanlar hakkındaki yorumlarını ve parçadaki bazı sözcüklerin anlamlarını soran 4 şıklı çoktan seçmeli olarak hazırlanmıştır. Toplam 30 tane soru vardır ve her soru 1,5 puan değerindedir. Bu bölüm toplam 45 puan değerindedir. Sınavın son bölümü olan Writing bölümünde öğrencilerin verilen bir konu hakkındaki fikirlerini yazılı olarak ifade etme becerileri ölçülür. Öğrencilere 3 veya 5 farklı kompozisyon konusu verilir ve bunlardan bir tanesini seçerek 250-300 kelimelik bir kompozisyon yazması istenir. Bu bölüm 20 puan değerindedir.
Sınavın Dilbilgisi bölümü için; öğrencilerin öncelikle akademik düzeydeki bir gramer kitabını tam olarak bitirmeleri gerekmektedir.
Sınavın Vocabulary (Sözcük Bilgisi) soruları için öğrencilerin akademik düzeyde sözcük bilgisine sahip olmaları gerekmektedir. Sözcük bilgisini değişik yöntemlerle geliştirmek mümkündür. Bunlardan biri sınava ait kelime listelerini ezberlemektedir. Bu kelime listeleri genellikle sınavda daha önceki yıllarda çıkmış sorulardan derlenmiştir. Bir çok sınavın belli sözcükleri üzerine odaklandığı ve bu sözcükleri sorduğu göz önüne alınırsa bu çalışmanın yararlı olacağı kesindir. Ne var ki, bu tür listeleri ezberlemek kısa vadede sınavın yalnızca kelime sorularını yanıtlamada etkili olabilmekte, ama öğrenciye uzun vadeli kalıcı bir kelime haznesi geliştirmede yardımcı olamamaktadır. Sözcük bilgisini geliştirmede en akılcı yöntem öğrencinin bolca ve sürekli okuma yapması ve öğreneceği kelimeleri okuduğu parçalardan çıkarmasıdır. Sözcüklerin bir cümle içinde anlam kazanarak öğrenildiği takdirde akılda kaldığı çok iyi bilinen bir gerçektir.
Ayrıca, sınavın önceki yıllarda sorulmuş Reading Comprehension (Okuduğunu Anlama) bölümlerindeki parçalar da öğrenilecek kelime çıkarmak için çok yararlı ve doğru kaynaklardır. Vocabulary çalışırken göz ardı edilmemesi gereken bir diğer konu da kullanılacak sözlüktür. Her ne kadar kolay ve yararlı gözükse de öğrenciler İngilizce-Türkçe sözlükler kullanmaktan kaçınmalıdır. İngilizce’den İngilizce’ye sözlüklerin yanı sıra mutlaka Thesaurus (Eşanlamlılae Sözlüğü) de kullanılmalıdır, çünkü pek çok kelime sorusu eşanlamlı sözcükleri sormak üzere hazırlanmıştır.
Sınavın Reading Comprehension (Okuduğunu Anlama) bölümünde başarılı olmak için öğrencilerden okudukları parçayı çok iyi anlamaları ve yorumlamaları beklenmektedir. Ayrıca Reading Comprehension bölümünde öğrencilere Vocabulary soruları da yöneltilmektedir. Bu bölüme hazırlanan öğrencilerin her şeyden önce genel okuma alışkanlıklarının olması gerekmektedir. Pek çok sınavda verilen okuma parçaları en az birkaç paragraftan oluşur ve öğrencilerden belirli bir süre içerisinde bu metinleri okuyup soruları yanıtlamaları istenir. Genel okuma alışkanlığı olmayan öğrenciler parçaları okumakla çok zaman kaybettikleri için çoğunlukla bu bölümde sürelerinin yetmediğinden şikayet ederler. Genel okuma alışkanlığını kazanmak için en az bir öğrencinin en az 3 ay süreyle düzenli okuma yapması gerekmektedir. Bu çalışma öğrenciye her şeyden önce kendi anadilinden farklı bir dilde yazılmış metinlere göz aşinalığı ve hızlı okuma alışkanlığı kazandıracaktır. Okumak için seçilen metinler sınavda çıkan konular arasından olduğu takdirde de öğrenci sınavdaki çıkması olası metin içerikleri için altyapı geliştirmiş olacaktır. Örneğin, uzay hakkında okunmuş bir parçadan elde edilen genel kültür ve kavram bilgisi sınavda uzayla ilgili çıkan bir parçanın daha kolay anlaşılmasını sağlayacaktır.
Sınavın Writing (Yazma) bölümünde puanlama öğrencinin doğru dilbilgisi kullanımı, doğru sözcük seçimi ve iyi organize edilmiş tutarlı argümanlarla ana fikri destekleme yetkinliğine göre yapıldığı için, başarılı olmak isteyen öğrencilerin her şeyden önce ileri düzey İngilizce dilbilgisinde yetkin olmaları gerekmektedir. Bu nedenle Writing (Yazma) becerilerini geliştirmek isteyen öğrenciler dilbilgisindeki temel cümle yapılarıyla yetinmeyip, kompleks cümle yapılarını (Noun Clauses, Adjective Clauses ve Adverb Clauses) hatasız kullanabilecek düzeyde bilmek zorundadırlar. Öğrenciler yalnızca ileri düzey bir gramer kitabını bitirmekle yetinmeyip, pek çok akademik yazma kitabının içinde bulunan ve karmaşık cümle yapılarının çalıştırıldığı alıştırmaları da gözden geçirmeleri onların yararına olacaktır. Sözcük seçiminde basit sözcükler yerine akademik olarak daha sık kullanılan sözcükler özellikle seçilmelidir. Öğrencilerinin akademik vocabulary çalışırken yeni öğrendikleri sözcükleri kompozisyonlarında kullanmaya çalışmaları hem kompozisyonlarının sözcük kullanımı açısından iyi notlar almasını hem de yeni öğrendikleri sözcükleri uzun dönem hafızalarına almaları açısından çok yararlı olacaktır.
Yıldız Teknik Üniversitesi İngilizce Hazırlık Atlama Sınavı
İNGİLİZCE YETERLİK SINAVININ (İYS) TEST NİTELİKLERİ
İYS BÖLÜMLERİ ve İÇERİKLERİ
- 1. İNGİLİZCENİN KULLANIMI
10’ar soruluk 2 çoktan seçmeli boşluk doldurma testi ve 5 en yakın anlamı bulma sorusundan oluşur. İYS’nin puanlamasında 25/100’lik bir ağırlığa sahiptir.
- Çoktan Seçmeli Boşluklu Paragraf Doldurma (Multiple Choice Cloze Test): 10’ar soruluk iki çoktan seçmeli boşluk doldurma testi tipi sorularda adaylardan içinde boşluklar bulunan bir metni okumaları, metinde verilen boşlukları cümle yapısı ve metin konusunu dikkate alarak kelime ve dilbilgisi yapıları ile doldurmaları beklenir.
- En yakın Anlamı Bulma (Closest Meaning): İngilizcenin Kullanımı bölümünün ikinci bölümü olan bu kısımda beş soru bulunmaktadır. Öğrencilerden verilen cümleye en yakın anlamı içeren cümleyi seçenekler içinden bulma becerisi ölçülmektedir. Bu bölümde öğrencilerin cümle seviyesinde okuma becerisinin yanı sıra dil bilgisi ve dile hâkimiyet becerisi de test edilmektedir. Bu bölümde öğrencilerin verilen cümleye en yakın anlam içeren cümleyi hem dil bilgisi hem de kelime bilgisini kullanarak bulmaları beklenmektedir.
- 2. OKUMA
- Okuma Metinleri
Sınavın bu bölümde okuma becerisi test edilmektedir. Kolaydan zora sıralanan iki metinin olduğu bu bölümde her bir metinle ilgili yedi çoktan seçmeli soru sorulmaktadır. Adayların verilen dört şık içinden doğru olanı seçmeleri istenmektedir. Bu bölümde kullanılan soru tipleri detaylı okuma, ana fikri bulma, metinden kelimenin anlamını çıkarma, metin içindeki kelime referanslarını (references) ve konu tümcesini bulma (topic sentence) gibi becerileri ölçmektedir.
Metinlere yönelik çıkarımda bulunma, yazarın amacını ve konuya ilişkin tutum ile tavrı, metnin türü ve bunun gibi üst düzey okuma becerilerini ölçen sorular da bu bölümde yer almaktadır. Ayrıca, tarama (scanning) ve özarama (skimming) alt okuma becerileri sınavda detaylı bilgiyi bulma soruları aracılığıyla ölçülen okuma becerilerindendir. Sorular ana fikri bulma sorusu ile başlar ve detaylı okuma sorularının çeşitli türleri ile devam eder ve metinlere yönelik çıkarımda bulunma, yazarın amacını ve konuya ilişkin tutum ile tavrı, metnin türü gibi üst düzey okuma becerilerini ölçen sorular ile biter.
- Paragraf Tamamlama (Paragraph Completion):
Okuma bölümünün bir parçası olan ve yine okuma ve okuduğunu anlama becerisini ölçen altı adet çoktan seçmeli paragraf tamamlama sorusundan oluşmaktadır. Öğrencilerin bu bölümde paragrafın bütünlüğünü sağlayan cümleyi verilen şıklar içerisinden bulmaları beklenmektedir. Okuma metinleri sorularında olduğu gibi her bir soru 1.25 puandır. Paragraftaki boşluğun bulunduğu yerler şu şekildedir: iki ana fikir cümlesi, iki detay cümlesi ve iki sonuç cümlesi.
Yukarıdaki iki bölümden oluşan Okuma bölümünün İYS’nin toplam puanlaması içindeki ağırlığı 25/100’tir.
- 3. DİNLEME
Dinleme bölümü dinlerken cevaplama ve not alarak cevaplama olarak iki ana bölümden oluşmaktadır. Toplamda 20 sorusu olan bu bölümde her bir soru 1,25 puan ve dinleme bölümünün İYS içindeki toplam puan ağırlığı 25/100’tir.
- Dinlerken Cevaplama (While Listening)
Birinci bölüm olan dinlerken cevaplama bölümünde bir radyo programı ve karşılıklı bir konuşma türünde 2 dinleme parçası ve her bir parça için 5 adet olmak üzere toplam 10 adet çoktan seçmeli soru sorulmaktadır. Bu bölümdeki sorular basit seviyede dinleme becerilerini test etmektedir.
- Not Alarak Cevaplama (Note-taking)
Bu bölümde detaylı dinlemeye ya da dinlerken not almaya yönelik daha akademik bir beceri olan not alarak soruları yanıtlama becerisi ölçülmektedir. Öğrenciler önce kendilerine verilen bir not alma kâğıdını 1 dakika boyunca incelemekte sonra da 8 ila 10 dakika arasında değişen uzunlukta olan bir dinleme parçasını iki defa dinlemektedir. Ardından soru kâğıtları dağıtılmaktadır. Dinleme parçaları yarı akademik ve akademik niteliktedir. Ana fikri bulma, sayılar-tarihler-yüzdelikler gibi istatistiksel bilgileri yakalama, not alınan bilgi veya kelimelerle detaylı anlama sorularını cevaplama ve konuşmacının konuya yönelik tutumunu, duygularını, yaklaşımını ölçen sorular olmak üzere toplam 10 soru sorulmaktadır.
- 4. YAZMA
İYS sınavının son bölümü yazma becerisini ölçmektedir. Bu bölümde öğrencilerin bir konu üzerine en az 250 ila 300 kelime arasında neden-sonuç (cause / effect essay) ya da fikir belirtme kompozisyonu (“opinion essay” veya “for-against essay”) türlerinden birini yazmaları beklenmektedir. Öğrencilere ilgili kompozisyon türlerinin her birinden bir adet olmak üzere toplam dört konu verilmektedir ve bu konulardan birini seçmeleri istenmektedir. Her konu için öğrencilerin kullanabilecekleri yönlendirici fikirler de sunulmaktadır. Ancak bu fikirlerin hepsinin kompozisyona eklenmesine gerek yoktur. Bu bölümün İYS içindeki toplam ağırlığı 25/100’tir.
İYS’nin UYGULAMA PROSEDÜRÜ
YTU YDYO Yeterlik Sınavı (İYS) bir akademik yılda Eylül, Ocak ve Haziran olmak üzere üç ana dönemde yapılır. Çeşitli ek yerleştirmeler nedeniyle YTÜ’ye kayıt olan öğrenciler için bu ana dönemler dışında İYS’ler de ihtiyaç durumunda yapılır.
İYS Eylül dönemlerinde bir yerleştirme sınavı özelliği taşıyacak şekilde iki ana aşamada yapılır. Birinci bölüm İNGİLİZCENİN KULLANIMI ve OKUMA bölümlerini içeren birinci aşamaya YTÜ’ye o akademik yıl kayıt olan tüm öğrenciler girer. Bu bölümde 50 üzerinden 25 alamayan öğrenciler ikinci aşamaya giremez ve Temel İngilizce Bölümü Hazırlık Programının ilgili düzeylerine yerleştirilir. İlk aşamadan 50 üzerinden 25 alarak geçen öğrenciler DİNLEME ve YAZMA bölümlerinin olduğu ikinci aşamaya geçer. Bu bölümden ilk aşamadaki notlarıyla birlikte toplam 59 ve altında puan alırlarsa ilgili düzeylerden birine yerleştirilir. Sınav sonunda toplamda 100 üzerinden 60 alan öğrenciler bölümlerine geçer.
İYS Ocak ve Haziran dönemlerinde de iki aşamalı yapılır. Bu İYS’lere devamsızlık sorunu yaşamayan ve dönem içi / akademik yıl sonu başarı notu koşulunu sağlayan tüm öğrenciler girer. Ancak bu dönemlerde yukarıda açıklanan ilk aşamadan geçme-kalma koşulu uygulanmaz ve tüm öğrenciler (beklemeli ve yeni kayıt) sınavın her iki aşamasına da girer.
Aşağıda hazırlıktan beklemeli öğrenciler ve çeşitli yatay geçiş programları yoluyla YTÜ’ye başvuruda bulunan öğrenciler için örnek çalışma materyalleri verilmiştir.
ÖRNEK ÇALIŞMA MATERYALLERİ
FINDING MAIN IDEAS AND SUPPORTING DETAILS
GUESSING UNKNOWN VOCABULARY
Yıldız Teknik Üniversitesi İngilizce Hazırlık Atlama Sınavı İngilizce özel ders, Haluk Hoca 0532 343 65 00
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ITU PREP. PROGRAMME PROFICIENCY EXAM September 5, 2006
SECTION I. USE of ENGLISH / Questions 1-35 (35 x 1 = 35 points)
Choose the alternative that best fits in each blank to make the texts meaningful.
Measles* Campaign Cuts Deaths by Almost Half
Measles is an infection of the breathing system. The cause is a virus. It is spread through the air when infected people cough or sneeze. Deaths from measles are often the result of related infections. Even 1_______ who survive can suffer brain damage, blindness or other disabilities.
The most recent 2_______ is that measles led to more than four hundred fifty thousand deaths in 2004. Most who die are children under the age of five. And the highest numbers are in southern Africa.
Measles is now rare in wealthier countries where parents usually have their children 3_______ against the disease, but it is still common in many developing countries. The World Health Organization says more than thirty million people are affected each year. Experts say weak vaccination programs are the main reason. They say almost all children who have not been vaccinated will get measles if they come into contact with the virus.
There has been a vaccine against measles for the past forty years. Still, measles remains the leading cause of vaccine-preventable deaths around the world, but there is good news. A new report said that an international campaign 4______ measles deaths by almost half the previous year. The report is from the World Health Organization and the United Nations Children’s Fund, UNICEF. It
says countries in southern Africa had the largest reduction: cases and deaths had 5______ by sixty percent. The Measles Initiative was launched in February of 2001. This international program is 6______ technical and financial support to countries in South Asia. They have the highest numbers of measles deaths outside of southern Africa.
The W.H.O. says children in developing countries 7______ get measles should receive two doses of vitamin A given twenty-four hours apart. This can 8_______ eye damage and improve chances of survival.
1. a) of those b) of these c) those d) these
2. a) establishment b) detection c) estimate d) determination
3. a) to vaccinate c) vaccinated
b) vaccinating d) for vaccination
4. a) had reduced c) would reduce
b) was reducing d) had been reduced
5. a) boosted b) enhanced c) risen d) dropped
6. a) extending b) exploiting c) extracting d) expressing
7. a) where b) which c) who d) whose
8. a) help preventing c) prevent by helping
b) help prevent d) prevent helping by
Measles*: an infectious disease
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ITU PREP. PROGRAMME PROFICIENCY EXAM September 5, 2006
The statistics regarding cigarette smoking are anything but encouraging. The Federal Trade Commission recently announced that in 1980 Americans purchased 628.2 billion packets of cigarettes, a(n) 9_______ greater number than ever before. The average smoker 10_______ 11,633 cigarettes, of which 44.8 percent were low-tar cigarettes containing less than 15 milligrams of tar. In 1968, the average tar content was 22 milligrams. 11_______ every cigarette pack has a printed warning from the Surgeon General, those who still smoke are smoking more heavily. Many people have 12_______ smoking for fear of lung cancer. The American Cancer Society reports that death rates from lung cancer have escalated, 13_______ those for other major cancers have leveled off or declined. Last year, 111,000 Americans died of lung cancer, while it 14_______ that 117,000 will die due to cancer this year. Lung cancer heads the list in killing 35 percent of males 15_______ of cancer. Lung cancer accounts for 17 percent of women’s cancer deaths. 440,000 deaths from cancer will occur this year- 9,000 more than in the 16_______ year. Lung cancer accounts for two thirds of this increase. 17_______ many cancer patients have survived the disease, the prognosis for lung cancer patients is the most discouraging. Ninety-one percent 18_______ of lung cancer have been fatal.
9. a) disapprovingly b) alarmingly c) ultimately d) eventually
10. a) raised b) swayed c) prospered d) consumed
11. a) Despite the fact that c) Due to
b) Due to the fact that d) Despite
12. a) caused to stop c) opposed to quitting
b) promised to give up d) denied reducing
13. a) as long as b) whereas c) therefore d) in case
14. a) predicted b) is attributed c) is predicted d) attributed
15. a) being killed c) who die
b) having died d) having killed
16. a) latter b) previous c) inferior d) recent
17. a) Unless b) However c) As soon as d) Although
18. a) in diagnosed cases c) cases which were diagnosed
b) of all diagnosed cases d) within diagnosed cases
A A A A A A A A A A A
ITU PREP. PROGRAMME PROFICIENCY EXAM September 5, 2006
Deforestation in the Himalayas
The Himalayas may never be the same again. The forests growing on the roof of the world are disappearing at 19_______ a quarter of the animal and plant species native to this biodiversity hotspot could be gone by the end of the century. What is worse, the Indian government is 20_______ the problem that is approaching because official figures inaccurately suggest that forest cover will rise rather than fall. This mistake has led to the approval of new schemes, such as hydroelectric dams, that will worsen this destruction. The Himalayan region has long been recognized as extremely rich in animal and especially plant diversity, and its need for conservation cannot be 21_______. Now a team of researchers led by Maharaj Pandit, a professor at the University of Delhi, India, is compiling statistics about these forests using satellite images. 22_______ so far reveals that by 2000, the region had lost 15 per cent of its forest cover compared with the early 1970s. The team also predicts that by 2100, it 23_______ almost half of its forests. And less than one-third of the dense forest 24_______ many native animal species depend will survive in the western Himalayas, while less than three-quarters in the eastern Himalayas will remain. What is more, the researchers regard these predictions as highly optimistic estimates, as they think increases in population and agriculture will also increase the deforestation rate. They say immediate conservation precautions 25_______ to prevent the disappearance of these forests in the future.
19. a) so rapidly rate that c) such a rapidly rate that b) such a rapid rate that d) so rapid rate that
20. a) unaware of c) susceptible to b) acquainted with d) keen on
21. a) confessed b) seized c) ignored d) afforded
22. a) Whether they have found c) What they have found b) Which they have found d) That they have found
23. a) loses c) will have lost b) is losing d) will have been losing
24. a) on which b) that c) on that d) which
25. a) might have been taken c) used to be taken b) have to be taken d) should have taken
A A A A A A A A A A A
ITU PREP. PROGRAMME PROFICIENCY EXAM September 5, 2006
Boosting the Brain
Among the most amazing new medical devices are those that stimulate nerves electrically. “Almost every function in the body 26_______ electrical signals from the nervous system, so stimulating the nerves is potentially able to influence many functions,” says Gerald Loed, MD, professor of Biomedical engineering at the University of Southern California. Jackie Brown can confirm the beneficial power of electricity. Brown, age 50, suffers from Parkinson’s disease. A drug called Sinemet 27_______ the symptoms of the disease, which included shaking and losing her balance. 28_______, each night when the medication stopped working, the shaking started. As she lay on her bed, her husband, a 2-meter, 110-kilo former professional football player, 29_______ on top of her legs trying to stop her shaking. She recalls, “I was shaking so badly that I 30_______ him off the bed.”
In March, 2004 doctors drilled a hole on each side of Brown’s skull. Through each hole they inserted a pea-sized device deep into the brain. Then they put its wires under the skin of Brown’s head and neck, a process 31_______ electricians putting wiring inside a wall. They spent two weeks programming it, and took her off the Sinemet. Brown no longer uses any medicine, but she lifts weights, drives her car and goes to bed like everyone else. “It’s a miracle,” she says.
Deep brain stimulation (DBS) “is an opportunity to give people back their 32_______,” says Malcolm Stewart, MD at the Presbyterian Hospital, Dallas. A study published in the New England Journal of Medicine shows that DBS reduces symptoms for five years after 33_______. The 34_______, however, is that it takes $100,000 and an expert team of doctors to install a DBS system. Still, systems like Brown’s are being used or tested to control symptoms in an amazing 35_______ of illnesses, including migraines and severe depression.
26. a) controlled by b) controlling c) is controlled by d) is controlling
27. a) allowed her to control c) resulted in her control b) led to her control d) made controlling her
28. a) Nowadays b) Nevertheless c) Thus d) In fact
29. a) had sat b) has sat c) would sit d) used to sitting
30. a) could push c) should have pushed b) can’t have pushed d) must push
31. a) such as b) for example c) similar to d) alike
32. a) self-confident and proud c) self-confidence and proud b) self-confident and pride d) self-confidence and pride
33. a) being installed c) having installed b) installing d) is installed
34. a) drawback b) doubt c) profit d) fortune
35. a) total b) various c) diverse d) range
ITU PREP. PROGRAMME PROFICIENCY EXAM September 5, 2006
SECTION II. READING COMPREHENSION / Questions 36-65 (30 x 1.5 = 45 points)
Text 1. Read the text and choose the best alternative that answers each question.
Vampires on the Leading Edge
“Rabid vampire bats attack Brazilian children” may sound like something out of the tabloid Weekly World News, but the headline actually comes from the respected magazine New Scientist. Vampire bats have indeed been attacking Brazilian children. In fact, they’ve bitten over 1,300 people since September 2005 and 23 of their victims 5 have died from rabies, a disease which causes people and animals to go mad and die. However, beneath the sensational and bizarre story is more hopeful news about the emerging field of conservation medicine. Conservation medicine is a relatively new discipline referring to the 10 convergence of ecology and health science. It’s a natural connection because the health of individual plants, animals and people is intimately connected to the health of the ecosystems in which they are embedded. What does this have to do with bats? Well, the reason for the recent increase in vampire bat attacks in Brazil is deforestation. The Amazon forests are being cleared 15 for industry and agriculture — especially grazing animals. With their homes gone, the bats are resting closer to humans and they have a new, plentiful supply of slow moving, warm-blooded victims – cattle (cows and bulls). This has led to larger colonies in smaller areas, which makes the bats more aggressive and no longer fear humans and also makes ideal breeding grounds for rabies. 20 Rabies isn’t the only disease recently transferred to humans from bats. Bats are also a natural reservoir for SARS, the respiratory virus that caused panic in Toronto and spread through Southeast Asia two years ago. Originally, scientists thought civet cats were the reservoir for SARS, but they now believe the civets were infected by bats. Bats often don’t eat all of their meals. Fruit bats, for example, chew fruit to 25 extract the sugars and then spit out what is left and that is eaten by animals searching for food on the ground. Scientists now believe that this is how the Nipah virus was spread through pig farms in Malaysia five years ago, when farms began displacing forests and bats began resting in barns. Authorities there had to kill one million pigs, and over 100 farm 30 workers died from the virus. But before hunting down these winged terrors, consider what ecologist Andrew Dobson wrote in an analysis in the journal Science: “Assuming we can control these diseases by simply controlling bats is both naïve and short sighted. Instead, we must recognize that increased disease transmission from bats to humans may simply reflect an increase in their contact because of modification 35 of the bat’s natural environment.” In other words, as humans continue to modify and destroy bat habitats, we will continue to run into these problems. To solve them, we must focus on conservation and learn more about bat ecology and immunology – about which we currently know very little. Ultimately, minimizing the conditions that lead to disease outbreak is much 40 more effective than dealing with the problem after it has already occurred. In nature, everything is connected. And while people tend to think that human society is somehow excluded from nature, like some sort of observer, we are in fact deeply embedded in it. Because of this, our actions can have extensive, unexpected and mysterious consequences. The new field of conservation medicine can help us to unlock those mysteries and build 45 a healthier world.
36. The word ‘convergence’ in line 10 is closest in meaning to _________.
a) division b) solution c) combination d) explanation
37. The word ‘their’ in line 15 refers to _________.
a) grazing animals b) the Amazon forests c) bats d) humans
38. The word ‘there’ in line 29 refers to _________.
a) barns b) forests c) pig farms d) Malaysia
39. The word ‘it’ in line 43 refers to _________.
a) nature b) observer c) human society d) disease outbreak
40. According to the article, _________.
a) there will be more problems caused by bats unless humans continue to modify their habitat
b) Dobson thinks the best way to control diseases transferred to humans from bats is to control bats
c) more research needs to be done in the field of bat ecology and immunology
d) the headline about bats shows that New Scientist has become a tabloid magazine
41. Which of the following can be inferred from the article?
a) The Amazon forests have all been cleared to make barns for animals.
b) Bats can’t have played a significant role in the transfer of SARS to humans.
c) Bats are not afraid of humans any more because they have got used to humans.
d) Conservation medicine aims to modify the natural environment of animals.
42. Which of the following is true according to the article?
a) There has been a decrease in the size of the natural environment of bats.
b) Vampire bat attacks started after deforestation began.
c) Fruit bats do not eat the pulp of fruit because they do not like sugar.
d) Vampires face extinction because they have difficulty in finding food.
43. It can be inferred that the writer of the article _________.
a) thinks that humans must be excluded from the natural world
b) suggests finding a solution to the outbreak after it occurs instead of preventive action
c) is critical about the concept of conservation medicine
d) has a holistic approach to nature
44. The writer’s main purpose in writing this article is to _________.
a) explain how to stop deforestation in the Amazon forests
b) warn us about the diseases transferred to humans from bats
c) inform readers of the possible benefits of conservation medicine
d) underline the effects of bat attacks on Brazilian children
Text 2. Read the text and choose the best alternative that answers each question.
Are Treasures Truly Safe?
A once famous American bank robber said he robbed banks because ‘that is where the money is.’ Actually, today museums are ‘where the money is’. Where else can one find so many moveable items of great value within arm’s reach? In one art gallery alone, there can be paintings worth more than a whole fleet of expensive jets. What’s more, while banks can hide their money in vaults, museums are obliged to display 5 their valuables. So, the theft of a well-known painting would be discouraging news not only for anyone who cares about art but especially for museum officials and gallery owners, who know how vulnerable their treasures are. Art theft is a vast problem around the world. As many as 10,000 precious items of all kinds disappear each year and it may not be a problem which smaller 10 museums, in particular, can afford to solve. As an example, on August 22, 2004, two famous paintings, The Scream and Madonna – both by Edvard Munch – were stolen from the Munch Museum in Oslo, Norway. They were stolen by two men wearing masks, one of them armed, at 11:00 a.m., about an hour after the museum opened. Like many great works, neither painting was insured for theft. The high 15 insurance premiums on very famous paintings would ruin the budgets of even the largest museums. An earlier version of The Scream had been stolen from the National Gallery in Oslo in 1994. Three months after the theft, officers from Scotland Yard, posing as experts from a museum in Los Angeles to catch the thieves, approached them with an offer to buy the painting and arrested them when they were given it. 20 However, with some other high-profile art-theft cases, the outcome is still in doubt and many cases are still unsolved. Large museums have had their share of embarrassing robberies. For example, in 1911 the Mona Lisa was stolen from the Louvre Museum. However, the bigger problem is small institutions like the Munch Museum in Oslo or private homes open to the public. Neither can afford elaborate security systems. Large museums attach alarms to their most 25 valuable pictures, but a modest alarm system can cost at least $500,000. Some museums are looking into tracking devices that would enable them to follow stolen items once they leave the building. “But officials are concerned that if they have to insert something, it might damage the picture,” says the former head of security at the Getty Museum. Meanwhile, smaller museums can barely afford enough guards. Instead, they depend on 30 their elderly staff. After being caught, a museum thief confessed at trial that there were only two guards for the three floors of the museum which he had robbed, so he had simply slipped the painting, worth $240,000, under his shirt and just walked out of the door. He told the court, “It’s probably more difficult to steal a T-shirt from a shop.” What can thieves do with the valuable paintings they steal? Their fame makes it very 35 difficult to sell them on the black market. A famous stolen painting worth thousands of dollars is not the kind of thing that a buyer could display openly in his / her mansion. Thus, it’s hard to imagine an underworld drug lord owning a masterpiece that is known to be missing. Thieves sometimes try using artworks as a means of making other kinds of deals. For example, the men who organized the 1986 robbery of Russborough House near Dublin for the 40 theft of 18 paintings tried unsuccessfully to exchange them for Irish Republican Army members who were being kept in British jails. Others demand ransom money from the museum that owns the pictures. In 1994, thieves in Frankfurt, Germany, ran away with two major paintings that had been borrowed from the Tate Gallery in London. The paintings were worth more than $80 million. They were recovered in 45 2002 after the Tate Gallery paid more than $5 million to people who had ‘information’ about where they were. Although ransom is illegal in Britain, money for secret information in an investigation is considered legal, provided that the police agree that the source of this information is unconnected to the crime itself. Nevertheless, it is hard to draw the line between information money and ransom. In other words, ‘where information money ends and ransom begins’ is 50 unclear.
45. The phrase ‘posing as’ in line 17 can best be replaced by ________.
a) disagreeing with b) pretending to be c) aiming at d) promoted to
46. The word ‘outcome’ in line 20 is closest in meaning to ________.
a) ending b) benefit c) processing d) disadvantage
47. The word ‘Neither’ in line 24 can best be replaced by ‘Neither _______ nor _______’.
a) private homes / the public c) large museums / smaller museums
b) the Louvre / Munch Museum d) small institutions / private homes
48. The word ‘Others’ in line 42 refers to ‘Other ________’.
a) bargains b) jails c) thieves d) members
49. The phrase ‘draw the line’ in line 48 can best be replaced by ________.
a) get confused b) make a picture c) make a distinction d) do a favor
50. Which of the following is not implied in the article?
a) Museums are usually easier to rob than banks.
b) Museums may be very tempting to thieves.
c) Large museums are totally protected against thieves.
d) Shops may have more protection than small museums.
51. Which of the following is true according to the article?
a) Both of Edward Munch’s paintings were found by experts from a museum in Los Angeles.
b) Some large museums have also been robbed of masterpieces despite their alarm systems and guards.
c) Most museums are using tracking devices to protect their valuable paintings.
d) Many great works of art in both large and smaller museums are insured against theft.
52. The article states that _________.
a) criminals like to buy stolen paintings because thieves do not charge them high prices
b) most stolen paintings have been recovered quickly through the cooperation of experts and policemen
c) the 1986 Russborough House robbers returned the 18 paintings they had stolen
d) thieves who steal famous paintings from museums cannot find buyers even on the black market
53. Which of the following can be inferred from the article?
a) The Tate Gallery probably paid the thieves themselves more than $5 million to get the two paintings back.
b) Museum thieves in Britain do not ask for ransom money for the paintings they steal because ransom is illegal there.
c) Thieves steal valuable artworks from museums to sell them to underworld people at prices higher than they’re worth.
d) Museums are banned from hiding their valuable items.
54. The article mainly explains _________.
a) the duties and responsibilities of senior museum officials
b) how and why museums or art galleries are robbed
c) why some museum theft cases are still unsolved
d) the systems used for the security of museums and art galleries
Text 3. Read the text and choose the best alternative that answers each question.
The 11-Year Quest to Create Disappearing Colored Bubbles Tim Kehoe has stained his face, his car and several bathtubs. He has also left marks on a few dozen children. He and his family have had to evacuate their house quickly because he had filled it with dangerous gas. He’s ruined every kitchen he’s ever had. Kehoe, a 35-year-old American inventor, has done all this work to realise an idea he first had more than 10 years ago. It’s one he’s been told repeatedly cannot be realised: a colored bubble. No, not the rainbow effect you see when the light 5 catches a clear bubble, but a bubble that gives off a single bright color through the entire sphere, a green bubble, an orange bubble, or a hot-pink bubble. Kehoe made a bubble like that when he was 26, after only two years of ruined pans and chemical fires. He showed it to toy company executives, who were absolutely amazed. But then it broke, as 10 bubbles always do. When it did, the dye inside escaped onto clothes and carpets and walls and skin, tingeing everything it touched. The executives told him to come back with a bubble they could wash off their boardroom table. With a baby on the way and a house to pay for, Kehoe had to concentrate on other things. However, in 2003 the software company Kehoe was working for was sold, putting him out of a job but 15 making its founders rich. Their high opinion of Kehoe inspired them to launch a new toy company with him. Kehoe contributed 219 ideas, they contributed half a million dollars. Only after the deal was secure and Kehoe had cashed the check, did he tell them about the bubbles. “I’d been avoiding it because I knew they’d get excited and want to do it,” Kehoe says. “And I didn’t know that I could.” In eight years of experiments, he had created bubbles with dozens of colors, with dozens of dyes, yet never one that was 20 washable enough to sell. “I tried to talk them out of it, but they were adamant. I told them that neither money nor manpower would be enough, but they still insisted that I try.” This happened on a Friday. His business partner Guy Haddleton, the man who paid his salary, told him to bring the bubbles in on Monday morning, so Kehoe started destroying his wife’s new kitchen. “And I couldn’t get it,” he says. “All Friday night, into Saturday morning, I tried everything I had done 25 before, and all I saw was clear bubbles. I really panicked.” Finally, he started trying new dyes. “I emptied stores of any products with color. The salesclerks thought I was crazy. I spent hundreds of dollars buying one of everything. One store had specialty inks that were $30 a bottle that I had never tried.” This new ink worked even better than he hoped. Not only did it produce colored bubbles, but also when Kehoe dumped the bubble solution on his clothes and his kids’ clothes, much to his surprise it 30 washed out every time. When Haddleton saw the bubbles on Monday, he was thrilled. A few months later, in July 2004, Kehoe and his partners invited dozens of kids and their parents to a media event to unveil their new bubbles. They hired a film crew and rented massive bubble machines to fill the air with their new bubbles. At first the party was great. Mothers were amazed at the sight of the strangely bright bubbles glowing in the sunlight. Kids yelled for joy and chased after them. 35 Eventually, however, the bubbles broke, on the kids, on the parents and on cars. It looked as if there had been a paint fight. Kehoe told the parents that the color would wash out, but that wasn’t enough, not when their kids were covered from head to toe in blue and pink spots, and the color was getting into theirshoes and hair. In the faces of the horrified mothers, Kehoe immediately understood the lesson: “You can’t put something on the market that leaves so much color, even if it is washable.” He needed color that 40 disappeared on its own, but in the history of organic chemistry, no one had ever created a dye like that.Kehoe put an advertisement on the Internet, looking for someone who could make a disappearingdye that could color the very thin wall of a bubble. Only one person thought he could do it. Ram Sabnisis one of the very few people who has a Ph.D. in dye-chemistry. Like Kehoe, Sabnis didn’t seem to consider the possibility that a problem could not be solved, but he had no idea how hard this one would turn out to be. Nevertheless, after a year of experimenting, he finally created a dye that would attach itself nto the surface of a bubble, giving it a bright color. The bubble would also lose its color with friction, water or exposure to air—not fade or transfer to something else, but go away completely as if it had never been there. When one of these bubbles broke on your hands, you could rub them together a few times and the color would disappear. If the bubble broke on your shirt or the carpet or the dog, you would have two 50 choices: use plain water and remove it immediately, or forget about it for half an hour. Either way, the color would be gone.
Without Sabnis’ breakthrough, Kehoe might have plodded on in his basement for many more years and never made the dye he needed. Without Kehoe’s dedication and belief in the idea, the project would never have been funded. But thanks to their efforts, you will be able to find Zubbles, Kehoe’s name for his colored bubbles, in a store 55 near you soon.
55. The word ‘evacuate’ in line 2 is closest in meaning to _______ .
a) clean b) dry off c) leave d) turn off
56. The word ‘one’ in line 4 refers to _______ .
a) what Kehoe has done b) an inventor c) an idea d) doing all this work
57. The word ‘it’ in line 17 refers to _______ .
a) a half million dollars c) cashing the check b) telling the company’s founders about the bubbles d) the deal
58. The word ‘adamant’ in line 20 can best be replaced by _______ .
a) unlucky b) determined c) frustrated d) delighted
59. The word ‘unveil’ in line 32 is closest in meaning to _______ .
a) introduce b) debate c) produce d) supply
60. The phrase ‘plodded on’ in line 52 is a synonym for _______ .
a) relaxed b) hidden c) worked d) given up
61. The bubbles Kehoe made when he was 26 years old _______ .
a) had the rainbow effect you see when light catches a clear bubble
b) were well-liked by toy company executives until they broke
c) made the executives so angry that they never wanted to see him again
d) were actually easier to clean up than the executives realized
62. The media event was a disappointment because _______ .
a) it was clear that mothers would not buy Kehoe’s bubbles
b) the bubbles left permanent stains on the children’s clothes
c) the bubbles broke more quickly than Kehoe expected
d) the children had a fight because of the bubbles
63. Ram Sabnis _______ .
a) was able to find a solution to the staining problem quicker than he expected
b) made a dye that transferred its color before going away completely
c) and Tim Kehoe were both experts in dye-chemistry
d) succeeded in making a dye that went away completely by itself
64. Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the text?
a) After the executives rejected his colored bubbles, Kehoe spent more time than ever working on them.
b) When Kehoe left the software company in 2003, he had saved enough money to start his own toy company.
c) In July 2004, Kehoe and his partners thought they had invented a colored bubble that would
become very popular.
d) Ram Sabnis was confident he could help Kehoe because he had worked on a similar dye while
doing his Ph.D.
65. Which of the statements below about Zubbles is not supported by the text?
a) They will come in a variety of colors
b) They will not leave stains on either clothes or skin.
c) If they leave a mark, you can rub it and it will disappear.
d) Sabnis must still improve his dye if Zubbles are to be in stores soon.
SECTION III. WRITING (20 points)
Write an essay of 250 – 300 words on ONE of the topics given below. Your essay must have an introduction with a clear thesis statement that includes controlling idea/s, at least 2 body paragraphs with relevant supporting ideas and a concluding paragraph. Your ideas should be organized properly.
1. Life in the future will be much better than it is today. Agree or disagree.
2. High school students in Turkey feel the need to go to private courses in order to be successful in the university entrance exam. What are the causes of this? Discuss.
3. What are the effects of living in another country on people? Discuss.
DO NOT WRITE HERE
WRITE YOUR ESSAY ON THE SHEET PROVIDED.
Essays written on the pages of this booklet will NOT be graded
YTU, SFL, Basic English Department
2003-2004 Academic Year Group (A)
For questions 1 – 68 choose the correct option to fill each space. (1 pt each)
1. Jim Henson, the creator of Sesame Street, wanted to make education more ………………… for children and to help them broaden their experience. Both children and the majority of adults enjoyed his shows and he was one of the most …………………-respected puppeteers of his generation.
a) enjoy / high c) enjoyable / highly b) enjoyment / higher d) enjoying / highest
2. I have been ………… a lot of money lately on things I don’t really need. I usually spend all my income and don’t ………… any money for a rainy day. As a result, I now can’t ………… my monthly car instalment.
a) spending / save / pay c) wasting / pay / afford b) paying / afford / save d) saving / pay / afford
3. Sheila got a twenty percent ………………… when she bought her vacuum cleaner during the sales.
a) tax b) bill c) fine d) discount
4. By the time he had finished work and returned home, he was absolutely ………………… .
a) exhausted b) tired c) petrified d) weak
5. The road sign ………………… that there is a sharp bend ahead.
a) announces b) indicates c) notices d) instructs
6. Mr Johnson, who is ………………… the company’s marketing department, has a very stressful job.
a) in search of b) in charge of c) on top of d) in common with
7. Jack ………………… Jill, by demanding $ 10,000, so that he wouldn’t reveal her secret.
a) blackmailed b) bribed c) kidnapped d) assassinated
8. The death penalty is ………………… a barbaric practice by most people.
a) considered b) predicted c) appreciated d) meant
9. Peter is not ………….. he used to be; he hasn’t got …………… much enthusiasm …………… he once had.
a) as / so / as b) like / as / as c) as / so / that d) like / as / that
10. After ten hours of questioning, Robert ………………… stealing all the money from the safe.
a) reminded b) agreed c) admitted d) informed
11. Many adults spend the largest part of their ………………… on accommodation; but while some actually buy a flat or house, others prefer to rent one. Buying one’s home used to be a sensible ………………… as most people made a good profit when they sold it.
a) payment / winnings c) salary / earnings b) interest / income d) income / investment
12. Terry is fundamentally a very strong person, so you can be sure she will soon ………………… the disappointment of her marriage breakdown.
a) make up b) look up c) get over d) get away with
13. Being the owner of the company, I first had doubts about him when he started working here, but now I am pleased to say that he has ………………… to be a talented executive.
a) taken up b) turned out c) broken through d) taken over
14. Many people wish they ………………… a job that paid as well as Harold’s, so if they heard him complain about it, they probably ………………… much sympathy for him.
a) had / wouldn’t have c) had had / won’t have b) had had / wouldn’t have had d) had / wouldn’t have had
This is the text of a speech made by Professor J.Henry Bright at South State University last Friday.
Good afternoon, ladies and gentlemen,
We are gathered here today to celebrate a commencement, not just an ending of this stage of your studies. True, you ….(15)…. your academic programs. Congratulations! And now consider the word commencement. “To commence” means “to begin”, and now the rest of your life is beginning.
At this time last year what were you doing? You ….(16)…. your semester examinations, and you were probably looking forward to the end of your college studies. And a year from now, what do you think ….(17)….? Some of you will be in school again, studying for a more advanced degree. Many of you ….(18)…. in your chosen areas and will feel far away from the happy days of college.
I know a woman who began college rather late in life – at the age of forty-five. Before this time she ….(19)…. as a secretary in an accountant’s office. While she was working, her boss, the accountant noticed what a quick and eager mind she ….(20)…., and he encouraged her to apply to the university and finally to attend. At first, she resisted the idea. She ….(21)…. all day long and used to be so tired at night that she would fall into bed right after dinner. Last year she entered an M.B.A. program, and she is graduating next February. She already has a job in a top accounting firm beginning right after she ….(22)….. . By the time she ….(23)…. her degree, she ….(24)…. a six-year academic life. When you are forty-five, you too ….(25)…. opportunities to continue to improve yourselves. Take advantage of those opportunities! Keep the spirit of accomplishment alive. Congratulations, graduates!
15. a) have finished b) had finished c) were finishing d) finish
16. a) have just finished c) had just finished b) have just been finishing d) would just finish
17. a) you will be doing b) you are doing c) will you be doing d) are you doing
18. a) will work b) has worked c) would work d) will be working
19. a) has worked b) had been working c) has been working d) works
20. a) was having b) has c) had d) had had
21. a) had been working b) had worked c) has been working d) was working
22. a) graduates b) will be graduating c) will graduate d) is graduating
23. a) will get b) is going to get c) gets d) is getting
24. a) will have completed b) will be completing c) will complete d) is completing
25. a) have had b) have c) are having d) will have
26. No one ………………… to leave the exam room before every student had handed in his / her paper.
a) had been let b) was allowed c) had allowed d) was let
27. He got an excellent grade in his examination ………….. the fact that he had not worked particularly hard.
a) on account of b) because of c) in spite of d) although
28. In the end, we ………………… to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.
a) had not rushed b) should have rushed c) mustn’t rush d) needn’t have rushed
29. He has put the answer phone on in case anyone ………………… to leave a message.
a) will want b) would want c) wants d) wanted YTU, SFL, Basic English Department
30. Life expectancy in the third world is relatively short, ………………… in the western world it has increased significantly.
a) whereas b) unlike c) therefore d) contrary to
31. The sooner she arrives, ………………… it will be for all of us.
a) the best b) good c) the better d) better
32. That pop star, ………………… name is on everyone’s lips, is organising an international charity concert, ………………… will be held in June.
a) whose / that b) whom / X c) who / that d) whose / which
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life, while human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. At the moment, attempts by a quarter of the world’s people to ….(33)…. on consuming two-thirds of the world’s resources, and by half of the people just to stay alive, are destroying the only resources we have ….(34)…. all people can survive. Everywhere fertile soil is ….(35)…. built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited ….(36)…. that they will never be able to recover completely. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a result the planet’s ability to support life ….(37)…. by people while the rising human numbers and consumption are making increasingly heavy demands on it. The earth’s natural resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to ….(38)…. us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are ….(39)…. enough and use the resources carefully, they will stand indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon ….(40)…. and everyone will suffer.
33. a) carry b) repeat c) follow d) continue
34. a) on whom b) where c) what d) by which
35. a) rather b) sooner c) either d) neither
36. a) too little b) so many c) too few d) so much
37. a) is reducing b) is being reduced c) are reduced d) are reducing
38. a) get b) have c) stay d) keep
39. a) sensitive b) sensible c) sensitively d) sensibly
40. a) go off b) go away c) run out d) get rid off
41. If no one ………………… President Kennedy, ………………… things ………………… different now?
a) had killed / would / be c) has killed / would / have been b) had been killed / would / have been d) had been killed / would / be
42. A: “You only scored 2 out of 20 in the test.”
B: “Really, was it ………………… that?”
a) as low as b) so few c) too few d) so low
43. ………………… nice it is that you remembered the anniversary of our wedding!
a) Too b) What c) Very d) How
44. “I can’t ………………… you her secret”, my best friend ………………… to me.
a) tell / told b) say / told c) tell / said d) say / said
45. “This isn’t the first time she has made the same mistake, ………………… ?”
a) isn’t this b) has she c) is she d) is it YTU, SFL, Basic English Department
Is it fast travelling?
Although the plane is the fastest means of transport, the idea of travelling by plane does not appeal to everyone because of the frequent delays. It is extremely ….(46)…. when you allow yourself ….(47)…. time to get to the airport and, once there, it is brought to your attention that there is a problem with your flight. The staff at the check-in are trying to ….(48)…. you that it won’t be long before the problem is solved. ….(49)…., hours later you feel disappointed, as you continue to wait patiently for your boarding call. Of course, you won’t gain anything ….(50)…. . By this stage you realise you are going to miss your connecting flight and now you must change your bookings. You feel ….(51)….. you’re never going to get to your destination. However, there is the slight chance that you could be one of the lucky ones spending the night at a top class hotel at the expense of the airline that caused your problem in the first place. To be honest, you ….(52)…. be heading for your original destination. Regular passengers advise us just ….(53)…. the fact that no matter how annoying this situation might be, it’s unavoidable and shouldn’t affect us that much. Nevertheless, it will always be a common sightto see people waiting eagerly, with the hope of hearing their flight announced.
46. a) frustrating b) frustrated c) exhilarating d) exhilarated
47. a) a couple of b) plenty of c) several d) many
48. a) insist b) warn c) persist d) convince
49. a) However b) Whereas c) Consequently d) In short
50. a) to complain b) by complaining c) to complaining d) complain
51. a) as b) though c) as if d) if
52. a) would rather b) prefer c) can’t d) would like
53. a) accept b) to accept c) accepting d) being accepted
54. Despite ………………… a lot of responsibilities to fulfil, he remembered ………………… his e-mails.
a) having / checking b) of having / checking c) he had / to check d) having / to check
55. ………………… English people are known for ………………… amount of ………………… tea they drink.
a) X / an /the b) The / the /the c) X /the / X d) The / an / the
56. Dave and Pacey were so angry that they started screaming at ………………… .
a) themselves b) each other c) the other d) another
57. A: “I cannot understand a word he says”.
B: ” ……………………………………………”.
a) Neither can I b) So can’t I c) Nor cannot I d) Either I can’t
58. Patsy Collins is ………………… her way home ………………… five in the morning after a long night, exhausted but proud ………………… what she has done.
a) in / at / with b) on / at / of c) on / in / of d) in / in / with
59. The workers ……………….. for disturbing us with the noise they’ve been making during the construction.
a) regret b) deny c) apologize d) agree
A Somalian Boy
Last summer was a turning point in my life. I ….(60)…. what suffering meant if I hadn’t become a volunteer at the Somalian Refugee Camp in Eastern Ethiopia. It was a mission I ….(61)…. . When my parents heard the news, they were taken by surprise, but they could understand my wanting to come to the aid of my fellow man. My outlook on life and war changed ….(62)…. Haile, a young Somalian boy who drew my attention right from the beginning. He ….(63)…. a lot after losing both his parents. He had cut himself off completely from everyone. His world was in pieces. He wouldn’t eat or drink for days and I knew I ….(64)…. something before it was too late. I ….(65)….. to him in his own language since I knew only a few words in Somalian. So I started reading stories to him in English. He ….(66)…. for me at my tent every evening. Of course, he couldn’t understand the language, but I knew he understood ….(67)…. I felt about him. What I did must have helped, as he began showing some interest in life again. Today, I think of Haile and wonder ….(68)…. .
60. a) wouldn’t understand c) wouldn’t have understood b) couldn’t understand d) shouldn’t have understood
61. a) couldn’t turn down c) needn’t have turned down b) shouldn’t have turned down d) can’t have turned down
62. a) in spite of b) as a result c) in case of d) because of
63. a) should have suffered c) must have suffered b) could have suffered d) would have suffered
64. a) could do b) may have done c) had to do d) might have done
65. a) was unable to speak c) wasn’t used to speaking b) wasn’t allowed to speak d) was able to speak
66. a) was used to waiting c) should wait b) used to wait d) could wait
67. a) if b) how c) that d) which
68. a) if he is doing c) what he’s doing b) whether he did d) what is he doing
For questions 69-73 find the sentence which is the closest in meaning to the given one. (1 pt each)
69. It is five months now since James and Alice got engaged.
a) James and Alice could have got engaged five months ago.
b) James and Alice will have got engaged in five months’ time.
c) It took James and Alice five months to get engaged.
d) James and Alice got engaged five months ago.
70. It is usually too cold to plant new trees at this time of the year.
a) In this season it’s rarely warm enough to plant new trees.
b) For the time of the year it’s warm, but not warm enough for planting.
c) If the weather stays warm we shall be able to plant new trees.
d) When the warm season comes we shall be able to plant regularly.
71. Although I wasn’t really worried, I felt better when I learned I had passed the exam.
a) After so much worry it was nice to know I didn’t fail.
b) I knew there was nothing to worry about but I still felt relieved to learn I passed the exam.
c) It worried me slightly that I might fail the exam.
d) I have passed the exam so I needn’t have worried at all.
72. The rainfall has been more than average this year. However, the reservoirs are nearly empty.
a) There’s less water in the reservoirs than one might expect following the heavy rain.
b) There’s not much water left in the reservoirs even though we’ve had more rain than usual this year.
c) The reservoirs are nearly dry since there has been less rainfall than usual.
d) The average rainfall is low, so this year the reservoirs are almost empty.
73. In rush hours there is so much traffic on the roads that it’s quicker to walk than to go by car.
a) There is so much traffic these days that it is easier to walk than to drive in the heavy traffic.
b) The traffic is sometimes so heavy that you can go in a car.
c) At certain times of the day it really is better to walk than drive in the heavy traffic.
d) If there is no special hurry, we may walk instead of going by car.
For questions 74 and 75 choose the main idea for each paragraph. (1 pt each)
74. Verbal taboos usually involve topics that people believe are too private to talk about publicly, or relate to one’s manner of speaking. In many cultures, for example, it is considered bad manners and is often offensive to discuss subjects such as sex or religion in public. In some countries, the volume of one’s voice may offend people. In Japan for example, people tend to be more soft-spoken, and might think that someone who is speaking or laughing loudly is rude or aggressive.
a) The word taboo is used to describe verbal and nonverbal behavior that is forbidden or to be avoided.
b) In some cultures, sex and religion are topics that are not okay to discuss publicly.
c) Nonverbal taboos relate to messages we send with our bodies.
d) Taboos are not the same everywhere; they are usually culture-specific.
75. Certain actions, especially with the hands and feet, can cause offense in many cultures. In Thailand, as in most other Buddhist cultures in Asia, touching a person on the head is considered very insulting because the head is the highest, and therefore considered the most important, part of the body. As the feet are the lowest, pointing at someone with one of your feet, or showing the soles of your feet to someone, is considered insulting in many Asian countries.
a) Actions made with the hands have different meanings around the world.
b) All cultures have types of behavior that are considered good or bad manners.
c) Some body language using the hands or feet can offend others.
d) Something that is okay in one culture may not be okay in another.
For questions 76 and 77 choose the sentence that completes the paragraph. (1 pt each)
Every year examiners describe a list of common errors. ………………(76)………………. . The most common and disastrous mistake is a failure to read each question and answer it correctly. There are no marks for answering a different question from the one set. (77)…………………………………………. . Underline, circle or even write out the key instructions, and then make sure you pay attention to each one.
76. a) Yet each summer, students fall into the same traps.
b) Sitting an exam is a skill itself.
c) Always leave enough time at the end of the exam to read through your work.
d) Candidates should try to make sure their answers are clear.
77. a) There is no point in putting all your effort into one paper only to be exhausted for the rest.
b) If you are unsure of anything, do not hesitate to ask a supervisor.
c) After weeks of study it is important to clear the mind, not cloud it.
d) It is useful to identify important words in the questions.YT
For questions 78 and 79 choose the sentence that completes each paragraph.
(1 pt each)
78. Living in a small town can be a good thing. Everyone knows each other well and can help each other in times of trouble. Sometimes there is also a bad side to small town life, though. You may feel that people are always watching you and ……………………………………………… .
a) wondering what to do.
b) talking about you.
c) welcoming you.
d) respecting you.
79. ………………………………………………………………… . But holidays are also a time for wondering whether burglars have helped themselves to your valuables in your absence, and whether your neighbour has remembered to feed the cat. Companies such as, Homesitters and Housewatch aim to reduce the worry of leaving your home for any length of time.
a) However, some householders have other reasons for using the service.
b) So what is the attraction of doing the household chores for a stranger when you hate doing them in your own home?
c) People use holidays to rest and to get better, as a time to relax on a foreign beach or track up mountain.
d) When they go on holiday, a lot of people have builders or decorators in and employ a homesitter to keep an eye on things.
For questions 80-85 read the text and answer the questions. (1,5 pts each)
HOW ENVIRONMENTALLY FRIENDLY AM I?
(1) I like to think that I am bringing my kids up to care about the world around them. They know that resources are scarce, that they shouldn’t waste water and that they should turn lights off to save electricity when they are not in a room. They know that we have to save the rainforests and respect the world’s fragile eco-balance. They know that we have to ensure that the air we breathe is clean. I thought my family was environmentally friendly, so I invited Tom Harper from Pollution Prevention Ltd to come and see if I was doing everything right.
(2) Tom arrived at our detached house early on a Saturday morning. I was making breakfast, and my two children, Joshua, aged nine, and Rebecca, twelve, were watching cartoons on TV.
(3) The first thing Tom asked when he came into the kitchen was, “How old is your fridge?” I told
him it was about fifteen years old. “Well, by the look of it, you ought to think about getting a new one.” “A new one?”, I asked. “I thought we were supposed to use products for as long as possible before buying new ones.” “It still works quite well.”
(4) “Well,” said Tom, “it may still keep your food cold, but look at those door seals. They are old, so
they are leaking cold air. That means your fridge has to work harder to stay cold, so that uses more
electricity. A new one would be much more efficient and cost effective.”
(5) We moved to the living room. It was November, so the heating was on. “It is nice and warm in
here,” said Tom, “but to be honest, there is a problem with your windows. Those aluminium window
frames let a lot more hot air out of the house than wooden or plastic frames do. And you do not have
double glazing. Double-glazed windows keep in almost twice as much heat as single pane windows. Once again, you are using far more electricity than you need to.” “Right, kids,” I said. “Turn the TV off, have a quick shower, then come down for breakfast. Okay?”
(6) “Before they have their showers,” said Tom, “Let’s have a look at your bathroom.” We all went
up. “You see that showerhead?” said Tom. “It has got lots of big holes. That is going to let through about twenty litres of water per minute. A new water-saving showerhead lets through a lot less water, and you still get a good shower. So if you fit one of those, you will not only save water, you will also save hot water, so you will lower your energy and your heating costs.” This was more like what I wanted to hear. A new fridge and double-glazing were expensive. A new shower? I could afford that.
(7) While the kids had their showers, we went to look at the car. Now I know cars are bad for the environment, but when you have got two children wanting to go to parties and to the sports centre, what other option is there? The nearest bus stop is too far away. Tom was understanding. “If you have to have a car, you have to have a car,” he said. “There is no such thing as an environmentally friendly car, but there are things you can do to reduce the negative impact cars have on the environment.” “I only use it when absolutely necessary,” I said proudly. “That is good,” said Tom. “But you should make sure the engine is kept properly tuned. This can increase fuel efficiency by as much as 8 %. Also, regularly check that your air filters are clean. If they are dirty, that will increase your fuel consumption.”
(8) By now, the kids were wanting their breakfast. We all sat down in the kitchen. “There are some
things you can do,” said Tom, “like checking your car, that won’t cost you much money, and they will save you money in the long run. Equally important, they will help a little to protect the environment. Other things we have talked about, like a new fridge, do cost quite a lot. But you have to be aware that your windows and your fridge at the moment are costing you more than they should in terms of heating bills and electricity use. Nobody benefits from that.”
80. Why did the writer invite Tom Harper to her house?
a) She wanted him to see how difficult it is to be environmentally friendly.
b) She wanted to know if she could be more environmentally friendly.
c) She wanted him to teach her children to be environmentally friendly.
d) She wanted to show him how to be environmentally friendly.
81. The writer was surprised by what Tom said about the fridge because …………………
a) she had had it for so long.
b) it was only about fifteen years old.
c) she wanted it to stop working before she bought a new one.
d) she thought he would not recommend throwing things away.
82. Why is the writer using too much electricity in the living room?
a) A lot of the heat is escaping through the windows.
b) The writer has the heating on in November.
c) The children have the TV on too much.
d) The window frames are not the right size.
83. What does the phrase “ one of those” (paragraph 6 ) refer to?
a) A showerhead with big holes.
b) A good shower.
c) A water-saving showerhead.
d) The shower in the writer’s bathroom.
84. Tom is sympathetic in the writer’s …………………
a) desire not to use public transport.
b) children’s desire to have showers.
c) willingness to buy a new shower.
d) explanation of why she has a car.
85. Tom points out to the writer that buying a new fridge …………………
a) may save her money in other ways.
b) may not be as expensive as she thinks.
c) would not really benefit her.
d) is more important than checking the car.YTU, SFL, Basic English Department
2003-2004 Academic Year
For questions 86-93 read the text and answer the questions. (1,5 pts each)
(1) The fur fashion industry is in poor health. The campaigns that started in the 1980s have had their effectn and in the US alone the number of fur farms fell by over 50% from 1987 to 1997. In a move that is bound to be a waste of effort, the fur industry has tried to rebuild by using the slogan “fur is back”. However, a loss of profits and an uncertain future mean that there are far fewer people working in the fur industry today. The number of manufacturers in the US has fallen from 797 in 1972 to fewer than 200. This trend will continue. We still need to be careful, though. Many people who would never consider buying fur are doing so without knowing it.
(2) Clothes designers are aware of the bad image fur has with many people. Some of them have taken the sensible decision not to work with fur. Those that still encourage this cruel trade are forced to find ways to disguise fur. The fur is often made to feel like other materials. It is dyed bright orange or powder blue to hide its origins. Perhaps the most common trick is to use a small amount of fur around the edges of coats, hoping that the customer won’t realise that animals have died to make their clothes.
(3) As the fur farming industry faces problems, so does the fur trapping industry. Governments have been rather slow to introduce effective laws but the situation is not looking good for fur trappers. The most popular trap is the leghold trap. Around ninety countries have banned these traps and over twenty countries, mostly in Africa, have banned trapping altogether. The use of these shocking devices is falling but there is more that we can do to persuade governments to act. Letter-writing campaigns can still help. Demonstrations still take place around the world against this evil trade.
(4) These actions do produce results. In Sweden, for example, the government agreed to pass a law saying that foxes cannot be kept in cages and that all foxes kept for fur must be allowed to dig by giving them enough space to behave naturally. The extra cost will mean that most fur farms in Sweden will go bankrupt. In Switzerland, too, the law makes this old fashioned industry impossible. If only more countries would follow this lead, a lot of suffering would be prevented.
(5) The number of animals suffering around the world for the fur trade has fallen by about twenty-seven million over the last decade. The people working against the industry can be proud of what they have achieved. Employment in this area of the economy has fallen to only about 600 workers. Many of them are looking for other jobs. Most of them realize that their industry has no future. Some of them have taken the brave decision to leavebecause they recognise the cruelty around them.
(6) The increase in sales of furs in the US does not mean that “fur is back”. At a time when the rest of the economy is growing quickly, sales of fur grew by a tiny 1.6% last year. This figure, even if it is correct, is a clear sign that people are moving away from fur. Thankfully, the industry is dying around the world.
86. The writer thinks the fur industry is ………..
a) never going to recover.
b) trying harder than ever.
c) becoming more trendy.
d) getting more careless.
87. The writer thinks that the designers have to …….
a) make logical choices about their designs.
b) fool people if they want to sell fur.
c) use other materials that look like fur.
d) use little fur because it is expensive.
88. What is meant by “these shocking devices” in paragraph 3?
a) laws against trapping
b) forms of protest
c) leghold traps
d) fur trappers
89. The industry will suffer in Sweden because companies will have to ………..
a) buy more cages.
b) increase prices.
c) keep more foxes.
d) have more space.
90. The writer admires people who leave their job when they ………..
a) can no longer survive in the industry.
b) see that profits are likely to fall.
c) are offered other employment.
d) realise the suffering they cause.
91. What is the writer’s attitude to the 1.6% growth in the fur industry?
a) It is a worrying statistic.
b) It was huge.
c) It may be a lie.
d) It shows the need for action.
92. What would be the most suitable title for this extract?
a) Don’t be fooled by designers
b) A return to popularity
c) The decline in the fur trade
d) Millions of animals are suffering
93. Which of the following dictionary definitions gives the correct meaning of “lead” as used in para 4?
a) first place c) suggestion b) example d) advantage